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Antagonist of heparin is -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Protamine
1
Protamine
Vitamin KWarfarin
Warfarin
Fresh frozen plasma
Pharmacology
null
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single
According to Mahler's theory, normal autistic phase is:
null
3
5 - 36 months
4 weeks - 4 years
0 - 1 year
2 - 3 years
Dental
null
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Side effect of salmeterol is-
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 'tremor o Tremor and palpitations are most common side effects.
1
Tremor
Seizure
Hypeension
Hyperkalaemia
Pharmacology
null
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Meniere's disease is characterised by all except:
(a) Diplopia(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 2331)The patient is fully conscious and oriented during an attack of Meniere.Meniere being a disturbance of peripheral vestibular system is therefore not characterised by any focal (such as diplopia, dysarthria, paresthesia, etc.) or generalised neurological symptoms like loss of consciousness, seizures, etc.The neurological symptoms accompany a central vestibular disturbance.However, vertigo of Meniere may be associated with vagal symptoms i.e. diaphoresis, pallor, nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, diarrhoea and bradycardia.
1
Diplopia
Tinnitus
Vertigo
Fullness of pressure in ear
ENT
Ear
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Auditory hallucinations not seen in:
C. i.e. Hysteria
3
Schizophrenia
Mania
Hysteria
Amphetamine toxicity
Psychiatry
null
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ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in: March 2007
Ans. C: Renal Aery Stenosis Renal aery stenosis is the narrowing of the renal aery, most often caused by atherosclerosis or fibromuscular dysplasia, impeding the blood flow to the target kidney. Diagnosis of renal aery stenosis: Refractory hypeension - high blood pressure that cannot be controlled adequately with antihypeensives Auscultation reveals a bruit ("rushing" sound) on affected side, inferior of the costal margin Captopril challenge test Captopril test dose effect on the differential renal function as measured by MAG3 scan. Renal aery aeriogram Deterioration in renal function may develop if both kidneys are poorly supplied, or when treatment with an ACE inhibitor is initiated. Hence ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in renal aery stenosis.
3
Hypeension
Myocardial infarction
Renal aery stenosis
Left ventricular dysfunction
Pharmacology
null
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Which of the following has epiphysis at BASE:
Epiphysis is present on the heads of all metacarpals, except first metacarpal (Thumb) epiphysis is at the base. If Epiphysis is present at the head of the first metacarpal bone it is called as aberrant epiphysis which is a detion from the normal (and rarely found).
3
Distal phalanx
Middle phalanx
Thumb metacarpal
Third metacarpal
Anatomy
Upper limb : Miscellaneous
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Mass Chemoprophylaxis is given for
null
2
Plague
Filaria
Cholera
Measles
Medicine
null
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single
Which of the following is the most common central nervous system parasitic infection -
Neurocysticercosis (NCC) is the most common form and accounts for 60–90% cases of Cysticercosis. NCC is considered as the most common parasitic CNS infection of man and most common cause of adult onset epilepsy throughout the world.
4
Echinococcosis
Sparganosis
Paragonimiasis
Neurocysticercosis
Microbiology
null
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Primary objective of the use of atropine in anterior uveitis -
Ans. is 'a' i.e rest to ciliary muscles Kanski writes: 3 main indications of mydriatics in uveitisTo give comfort by relieving spasm of the ciliary muscles and sphincter of the pupil which occurs in severe acute anterior uveitis.To prevent the formation of posterior synechiae by using a short-acting mydriatic which keeps the pupil mobile ( Note that atropine is not a short-acting mydriatic )To break down synechiae.By reading these indications it appears that the primary objective of atropine is to give rest to ciliary muscles. Moreover to prevent posterior synechiae formation a short-acting mydriatic is used which keeps the pupil mobile. A long-acting mydriatic like atropine can keep pupils dilated for long durations and posterior synechiae can form in the dilated position.
1
Rest to the ciliary muscle
Increase the supply of antibody
Increase blood flow
Prevents posterior synechia formation
Unknown
null
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single
The mode of inheritance of incontinentia pigment is –
Incontinentia pigmenti is an X-linked dominant disorder
3
Autosomal dominant
Autosomal recessive
X-linked dominant
X-linked recessive
Dental
null
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single
Water lily sign on chest X ray is seen in -
Ans. is 4b' i.e., Hydatid cysto Radiological signs of hydatid cyst of lungMeniscus signWater-lilly signCamalote signRising sun signSerpent signEmpty cyst sign
2
Tuberculosis
Hydatid cyst
Cryptococcosis
Aspergillosis
Radiology
Imaging of Alveolar Lung Disease
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single
All are diseases of defective DNA repair except
Human Diseases of DNA Damage Repair Repair Defective Nonhomologous End Joining Repair (NHEJ) Severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID) Radiation sensitive severe combined immunodeficiency disease (RS-SCID) Defective Homologous Repair (HR) AT -like disorder (AT LD) Nijmegen breakage syndrome (NBS) Bloom syndrome (BS) Werner syndrome (WS) Rothmund-Thomson syndrome ( S) Breast cancer susceptibility 1 and 2 (BRCA1, BRCA2) Defective DNA Nucleotide Exicision Repair (NER) Xeroderma pigmentosum (XP) Cockayne syndrome (CS) Trichothiodystrophy (TT D) Defective DNA Base Excision Repair (BER) MUTYH-associated polyposis (MAP) Defective DNA Mismatch Repair (MMR) Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) Harper30e pg: 390
2
Severe combined immunodeficiency disease
Adenosis polyposis coli
Bloom syndrome
Breast cancer susceptibility 1 (BRCA 1)
Biochemistry
Metabolism of nucleic acids
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Which fungus appears as single budding cell in culture at 370 C and the bud and the parent yeast have a characteristic wide base of attachment?
This is the characteristic appearance of B. dermatitides
1
B. dermatitidis
C. neoformans
C. albicans
P. brasiliensis
Microbiology
All India exam
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single
Investigation of choice for assessing a child with vesicoureteric reflux is:
Ans. Micturating cystourethrogram
3
Antegrade IVP
Retrograde IVP
Micturating cystourethrogram
Cystoscopy
Radiology
null
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Most common cause of embolic stroke is?
*approximately 20% of ischemic strokes are due to embolism from the hea. the most common causes are atrial fibrillation,prosthetic hea valves,other valvular abnormalities and recent myocardial infraction. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2345
1
Intra cardiac mural thrombi
Paiculate matter from iv drug injections
Protein C deficiency
Antiphospholipid syndrome
Medicine
C.N.S
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Horner Tranta's spots are seen in:
Ans. Vernal conjunctivitis
1
Vernal conjunctivitis
Phylectenular conjunctivitis
Angular conjunctivitis
Follicular conjunctivitis
Ophthalmology
null
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All are true about Iron deficiency of anemia EXCEPT
B. i.e. (Sideroblasts) (369- 373- Harsh Mohan 5th) (435 - Basic pathology 8th)* "Sideroblast are reduced or absent in iron deficiency "IRON DEFICIENCY ANEMIA* *Common cause of nutritional anemia* *S. ferritin is good indicator of the adequacy of body iron stores* **Biochemical findings - S. iron levels |. TIBC |. S. ferritin || red cell protoporphyrin ||, Erythropoietin|* **Microcytic hypochromic - MCV, MCH, MCHC are all reduced. Eg Iron deficiency anemia, sideroblastic anemia thalassaemia, anemia of chronic disorders,* Extra medullary hematopoiesis is uncommon* Anisocytosis and poikilocytosis, Target cells, elliptical forms and polychromatic cells are often present* Thrombosthenin is - contractile protein*** Hypothalamus is not rich in thromboplastin**
2
Hypochromic microcytic
Sideroblasts
Serum ferritin is a marker
Anisocytosis and poikilocytosis
Pathology
Blood
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Saccharolytic reaction in cooked meat broth is produced by
CMB also called Robesons cooked meat -contains nutrient broth and cooked meat of ox hea Saccharolytic reaction positive for cl.perfringes Proteolytic reaction positive for cl.tetani Ref: CP Baveja 4th ed Pg:51
2
Pseudomonas
Clostridium perfringes
Clostridium tetani
C.diptheriae
Microbiology
general microbiology
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In a patient with acute leukemia, immunophenotype pattern is CD 19+ve, CD 10+ve, CD33+ve, CD13+ve.He may probably have-
null
1
Biphenotypic leukemia
ALL
AML-M2
AML-M0
Medicine
null
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Congenital rubella syndrome is most prominent in an infant when a pregnant woman becomes infected?
The route of infection of rubella virus is the respiratory tract, with spread to lymphatic tissue and then to the blood (viremia). Maternal viremia is followed by infection of the placenta, which leads to congenital rubella. Many organs of the fetus suppo the multiplication of the virus, which does not seem to destroy the cells but reduces the rate of growth of the infected cells. This leads to fewer than normal numbers of cells in the organs at bih. Therefore, the earlier in pregnancy infection occurs, the greater the chance for the development of abnormalities in the infected fetus. A vast percentage of maternal infections that occur during the first trimester of pregnancy result in such fetal defects as pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, cataracts, glaucoma, deafness, mental retardation, and other maladies. Ref: Brooks G.F. (2013). Chapter 40. Paramyxoviruses and Rubella Virus. In G.F. Brooks (Ed), Jawetz, Melnick, & Adelberg's Medical Microbiology, 26e.
1
During the first trimester of pregnancy
One week before a full-term delivery
One month before a full-term delivery
Hours before childbih
Microbiology
null
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A 25 year old man presented with fever, cough, expectoration and breathlessness of 2 months duration. Contrast enchanced computed tomography of the chest showed bilateral upper lobe fibrotic lesions and mediastinum had enlarged necrotic nodes with peripheral rim enhancement. Which one of the following is the most probable diagnosis?Sarcoidosis
B i.e. Tuberculosis Expectoration is a common manifestation in tuberculosis. It is usually not associated with sarcoidosis, silicosis & lymphoma. B/L Upper lobe fibrosis makes lymphoma unlikely. It may be seen in other conditions and m.c. in tuberculosis. Diagnosis of silicosis is based on relevant occupational history (10-12 years exposure is usually necessary). Radiological features of
2
Sarcoidosis
Tuberculosis
Lymphoma
Silicosis
Radiology
null
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DEEP PETROSAL nerve arises from
The deep petrosal nerve, sympathetic in nature is a branch of the sympathetic plexus around the internal carotid aery. It contains postganglionic fibres from the superior cervical sympathetic ganglion. The nerve joins the greater petrosal nerve to form the nerve of the pterygoid canal. The sympathetic fibres in it are distributed through the branches of the pterygopalatine ganglion. Ref: BD Chaurasia's HUMAN ANATOMY, Volume 3, 4th edition.
3
Facial nerve
Glossopharyngeal nerve
Plexus around internal carotid aery
Mandibullar nerve
Anatomy
Head and neck
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single
The intrinsic potency as local anesthetic is the lowest in
null
2
Lidocaine
Procaine
Prilocaine
Tetracaine
Pharmacology
null
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Withdrawal bleeding following administration of progestogen in a case of secondary amenorrhea indicates all except
Ans. is d, i.e. Defect in pituitary gonadal axisRef: Dutta Gynae 6th/ed, p467; Leon Speroff 7th/ed, p404-409Withdrawal bleeding following administration of progesterone suggests:* The uterus is sufficiently primed with estrogen, i.e. production of endogenous estrogen is normal which means. Ovaries and hypothalamic pituitary axis are functioning normally.* The outflow tract (uterus) is normal and endometrium is responsive to estrogen.* There is a defect in production of progesterone (so pregnancy ruled out).
4
Absence of pregnancy
Production of endogenous estrogen
Endometrium is responsive to estrogen
Defect in pituitary gonadal axis
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Disorders in Menstruation
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Which among the following is NOT secreted by adrenal medulla:
The adrenal medulla secretescatecholamines which include epinephrine, norepinephrine and dopamine. About 80% of adrenal medullarycatecholamine is epinephrineand rest is norepinephrine. Apa from catecholamines, the adrenal medulla also contains small amounts of dynorphins, neurotensin, encephalin, somatostatin and substance P. Synthesis of catecholamines include four steps: 1. Conversion of tyrosine to DOPA 2. Conversion of DOPA to dopamine 3. Conversion of dopamine to norepinephrine 4. Conversion of norepinephrine to epinephrine
4
Epinephrine
Nor epinephrine
Dopamine
Coisol
Physiology
null
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Which is the most common site of peripheral aneurysm?
MC site of peripheral aneurysm: Popliteal aneurysm MC site of Splanchnic Aneurysm: Splenic Aery Aneurysm. MC vessel involved in aneurysm: Circle of Willis MC location of extra- cranial aneurysm: Aoa > Iliac > Popliteal > Femoral (AIPF) MC site of extra- cranial aerial aneurysm is infrarenal aoa
3
Femoral aery
Radial aery
Popliteal aery
Brachial aery
Surgery
Aerial disorders
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Sabin Feldman dye test is used for diagnosis of:
Ref. Textbook of Microbiology and Immunology BY Parija. Page. 500   Toxoplasma: Tests include Sabin-Feldman dye test, which tests for IgG antibodies ELISAs targeted at IgM, IgA and IgE Differential agglutination tests and IgG avidity tests. Sabin Feldman Dye test The test measures the total amount of antibody in serum which is capable of complement mediated killing of toxoplasma tachyzoites. Serum is diluted across a microtitre plate and the end point is the dilution at which 50% of the tachyzoites are dead
3
Leishmaniasis
Echinococcosis
Toxoplasmosis
Balantidiasis
Unknown
null
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single
Soluble components of complement system account for about
null
2
1-2 mg/ml of total serum protein
3-4 mg/ml of total serum protein
5-7 mg/ml of total serum protein
7-8 mg/ml of total serum protein
Microbiology
null
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Primary amoebic meningitis caused by -
Naegleria fowleri, the only pathogenic species of naegleria Human infection comes from water containing the amoebae and usually follows swimming or diving in ponds. Patients are mostly previously healthy young adults or children. The amoebae invade the nasal mucosa, pass through the olfactory nerve branches in the cribriform plate into the meninges and brain to initiate an acute purulent meningitis and encephalitis (primary amoebic meningoencephalitis). The incubation period is 2 days to 2 weeks. The disease almost always ends fatally within a week TEXTBOOK OF MEDICAL PARASITOLOGY,CKJ PANIKER,6TH EDITION,PAGE NO 31
1
Naegleri fowleri
E.histolytica
E.coli
B.coli
Microbiology
parasitology
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This milestone is achieved by the age of _________
At 4 months Lifts head and chest, with head in an approximately veical axis. legs extended Reaches and grasps objects and brings them to mouth Enjoys sitting with full trunkal suppo When held erect pushes with feet Laughs out loud Excites at sight of food Ref : Nelson 20th edition pg:67
2
2 months
4 months
6 months
8 months
Pediatrics
Growth and development
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During gluconeogensis reducing equivalents from mitochondria to cytosol are transpoed by
A i.e. MalateMallate shuttle is a system by which reducing equivalents (NADH) produced in glycolysisQ are transferred from cytosol to mitochondria to yield energy.NADH produced in the glycolysisQ, is extramitochondrial where as the electron transpo chain, where NADH has to be oxidized to NAD+ is in the mitochondria (Oxidation of 1 NADH yields 3 ATP/2.5 ATP). NADH is impermeable to mitochondrial membrane, so to enable transfer of NADH inside mitochondria Shuttle system is utilized.
1
Malate
Aspaate
Glutamate
Oxaloacetate
Biochemistry
null
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Epinephrine action in liver:
A i.e. Glycogenolysis
1
Glycogenoloysis
Gluconeogenesis
Glycolysis
Lipolysis
Physiology
null
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Treatment of choice for medullary carcinoma:
null
4
Thyroxin therapy.
Radioiodine.
External radiation
Total Thyroidectomy.
Surgery
null
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The urine sample of a patient has been sent to the laboratory to look for Leptospira. The specimen is to be screened by use of the
null
3
Scanning microscope
Inverted microscope
Dark ground microscope
Electron microscope
Microbiology
null
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single
Which of the following is involved in gradenigo's syndrome?
Headache and earache are the most frequent symptoms of transverse sinus thrombosis. A transverse sinus thrombosis may also present with otitis media, sixth nerve palsy, and retroorbital or facial pain (Gradenigo's syndrome). Sigmoid sinus and internal jugular vein thrombosis may present with neck pain. Ref Harrison 20th edition page 1018
3
Superior saggital sinus
Cavernous sinus
Transverse sinus
Sigmoid sinus
Medicine
C.N.S
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The white matter of cerebellum is well myelinated at
The white matter of cerebellum is well myelinated at 1 month.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology, 23rd edition, Page no:254
1
1 month
3 months
6 months
12 months
Physiology
Nervous system
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All are mechanism of defence except:
B i.e. Transference
2
Repression
Transference
Projection
Anticipation
Psychiatry
null
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Which is associated with alcohol related cardiomyopathy
Dilated cardiomyopathy Restrictive cardiomyopathy Hyperophic obstructive cardiomyopathy Left ventricle is enlarged resulting in reduced systolic function Walls of ventricles become rigid resulting in decreased compliance. Asymmetrical septal hyperophy resulting in Left ventricular outflow tract obstruction Sub valvular AS Causes: Toxin - alcohol Sequalae to coxsackie-B myocarditis Sarcoidosis Duchenne's muscular Dystrophy Causes: Amyloidosis Sarcoidosis Radiation Endomyocardial fibroelastosis Hyper-eosinophilia Cause: b-myosin gene defect
1
Dilated
Restrictive
Hyperophic
None
Medicine
FMGE 2019
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Christmas tree appearance of urinary bladder is seen in
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Neurogenic bladder Christmas tree appearance of the bladder is seen in neurogenic bladder caused by detrusor hyperreflexia. Detrusor hyperreflexia is caused by lesions of the spinal cord above the sacral segments but below the pons. Such patients have noperception of bladder filling or emptying and voluntary voiding is not possible. Voiding when it does occur is involuntary with simultaneous contractions of the detrusor and external sphincter muscles. Common neurological condition resulting in detrusor hyperreflexia include Multiple sclerosis Myelodysplasia, Spinal cord trauma Spinal cord tumours, A-V malformatio not the spinal cord Radiologically, patients with long terms untreated detrusor hyperreflaxia have characteristic changes of the urinary tact. Bladder is veically oriented, with an irregular contours, consistent with trabeculation. There are frequently multipel diveicula, Such a bladder is referred to as a christmas tree. Automatic bladder Autonomous bladder Lesion site Above T5 or higher Cauda equina damage / lower motero neuron Manifestation Small spastic bladder damage Large flaccid bladder Why this name urge comes again and again due to repeated contractions and hence empties repeatedly after some time Has no urge sensation and continuous DRIBBLING occurs, So it is like the bladder is working all the time but Brain has no control over it and hence called autonomous bladder Radiological data Christmas tree appearance No VUR but still bladder is large and holds lots of residual urine
1
Neurogenic bladder
Stress incontinence
Autonomous bladder
Enuresis
Medicine
null
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Drug of choice for Acute Adrenal Crisis is:
Answer is B (Hydrocoisone): The treatment of choice for acute adrenal insufficiency is Glucocoicoid Replacement Therapy. Hydrocoisone is the preferred steroid fir Glucocoicoid replacement therapy in acute adrenal crisis since it has both glucocoicoid and mineralocoicoid actions. In cases where the diagnosis of acute adrenal insufficiency is suspected (not confirmed) Dexamethasone is preferred as the initial steroid of choice because Dexamethasone does not compete with the coisol assay. 'Glucocoicoid replacement should be initiated by bolus injection of 100 mg Hydrocoisone, followed by the administration of 100-200mg hydrocoisone over 24 hours either by continuous infusion or provided by several IV or IM Injections. Mineralocoicoid replacement can be initiated once the daily hydrocoisone dose has been reduced to less than 50 mg because at higher doses hydrocoisone provides sufficient stimulation of glucocoicoid receptors'
2
Norepinephrine
Hydrocoisone
Dexamethasone
Fludrocoisone
Medicine
null
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Telefono means ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Beating on ears Telefono : Simultaneous beating of both ears with the palm of hands. This may lead to rupture of tympanic membrane, causing pain, bleeding and hearing loss. It is difficult to detect this. The external ear may also get torn during pulling of the ears. Falanga : beating of soles with blunt object. It is the most common type of toure. It can cause immediate & long term consequences, even disability
3
Beating on soles
Beating on palms
Beating on ears
Pulling of hair
Forensic Medicine
null
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Maximum tissue reaction in associated with which suture material?
Ans. D. Plain catgut. (Ref. Bailey and Love 26th/pg. 36. Table 18.1).While plain Catgut or Chromic catgut often causes bacterial infection due to inflammatory tissue reaction. Reaction to catgut depends on the stage of absorption and is mainly histocytic in type. Nonabsorbable sutures are encapsulated by a rim of connective tissue, while near the suture histocytes, giant cells and lymphocytes are found. This is most marked with silk and cotton, less so with Dacron, and least with nylon and wire.# All the natural sutures, silk, cotton, linen and catgut, are being replaced by polymeric synthetic materials that cause minimal inflammatory reactions, are of predictable strength and absorb at an appropriate rate. They can be manufactured as monofilaments or braids, and can be coated with wax, silicone or polybutyrate to allow them to run smoothly through tissues and to knot securely. The absorbables cause a minimal tissue reaction as they are resorbed. To aid in the prevention of postoperative infection, particularly after prosthetic surgery, absorbable synthetic sutures may be impregnated with an antiseptic (Vicryl Plus, a polyglactin, is impregnated with triclosan).# The integrity of some synthetic non-absorbables in holding healing tissues together can last indefinitely, such as the use of polypropylene in arterial anastomosis. Polyamide (nylon) is slowly biodegradable and therefore not suitable for this purpose. Many nonabsorbables are presented as monofilaments, which eliminates interstices in the thread and makes knots less likely to be a nidus for infection by reducing the risk of bacterial biofilms and adherence, but requires more skill in tying secure knots# Polyglyconate is newest synthetic monofilament absorbable suture. It is sterile, noncollagenous, nonantigenic, nonpyrogenic. It elicits only slight tissue reaction during absorption, absorption is by nonenzymatic hydrolytic process.Absorbable suturesSutureTissue reactionHow suppliedCommon indicationsContraindicationsCatgut plainHigh6/0-1 with needles; 4/0-3 without needlesLigate superficial vessels, suture subcutaneous tissuesStomas and other tissues that heal rapidlyNot for use in tissues which heal slowly and require prolonged supportCatgut chromicModerate6/0-3 with needles;5/0-3 without needlesAs for plain catgut PolyglactinMild8/D--2 with needles;5/0-2 without needlesGeneral surgical use where absorbable sutures required, e.g. gut anastomoses, vascular ligatures. Has become the 'workhorse' suture for many applications in most general surgical practices, including undyed for subcuticular wound closures. Ophthalmic surgeryPopular in some centres as an alternative to Vicryl and PDS.Not advised for use in tissues which require prolonged approximation under stressPolyglyconateMild7/0-2 with needles Not advised for use in tissues which require prolonged approximation under stressPolyglycolic acidMinimal9/0-2 with needles;9/0-2 without needlesUses as for other absorbable sutures, in particular where slightly longer wound support is requiredNot advised for use in tissues which require prolonged approximation under stressPolydioxanone (PDS)MildPolydioxanone suture (PDS) 10/0-2 with needlesUses as for other absorbable sutures, in particular where slightly longer wound support is requiredNot for use in association with heart valves or synthetic grafts, or in situations in which prolonged tissue approximation under stress is requiredPolyglycaproneMild8/0-2 with needlesSubcuticular in skin, ligation, gastrointestinal and muscle surgeryNo use for extended suppNon-absorbable suturesSutureTissue reactionCommon usesContraindicationsSilkModerate to high.Not recommendedConsider suitable absorbable or non-absorbableLgation and suturing when long-term tissue support is necessary for securing drains externallyNot for use with vascular prostheses or in tissues requiring prolonged approximation under stress Risk of infection and tissue reaction makes silk unsuitable for routine skin closureLinenModerateLigation and suturing in gastrointestinal surgery. No longer in common use in most centresNot advised for use with vascular prosthesesSurgical steelMinimalClosure of sternotomy wounds, Previously found favour for tendon and hernia repairsShould not be used in conjunction with prosthesis of different metalNylonLowGeneral surgical use, e.g. skin closure, abdominal wall mass closure, hernia repair, plastic surgery, neurosurgery, microsurgery, ophthalmic surgeryNonePolyesterLowCardiovascular, ophthalmic, plastic and general surgeryNonePolybutesterLowExhibits a degree of elasticity. Particularly favoured for use in plastic surgeryNonePolypropyleneLowCardiovascular surgery, plastic surgery, ophthalmic surgery, general surgical subcuticular skin closureNone
4
Polypropylene
Polyglyconate
Polydioxanone
Plain catgut
Surgery
Wounds, Tissue Repair & Scars
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The parvocellular pathway from lateral geniculate body to visual coex carries signals for detection of
Parvocellular pathway carries signal for detection of colour vision, texture, shape, fine detail. Ref: Ganong 25th ed/page 193
1
Colour contrast
Luminance contrast
Temporal frequency
Saccadic eye movements
Physiology
Nervous system
ec83aa72-5f4f-4087-b5cb-3e16a4704d1a
single
A 42-year old man was referred with a 2 week history of fever weakness and bleeding gum. Peripheral smear showed pancytopenia. The bone marrow examination revealed 26% blasts frequency exhibiting Auer rods and mature myeloid cells. An occasional neutrophil with pseudo Pelger-Huet anomaly was also detected. Which of the following cytochemical stains is most likely to be positive?
Patient here gives a sho history (acute onset) of development of pancytopenia (fever; weakness and gum bleeding suggest leucopenia; anemia and thrombocytopenia respectively). The presence of 26% blasts in the bone narrow suggests the development of acute leukemia and the presence of Auer rods means that the diagnosis is most likely AML. Pseudo Pelger Huet cells are neutrophils having greater than 2 nuclear lobes and are usually seen in myelodysplastic syndrome. In 10% patients, MDS can give rise to AML. So, the AML in question may have developed from MDS. The chief cell in AML is myeloblast for which the staining is positive for myeloperoxidase. Note: Acid phosphatase is useful for lymphoblasts which are seen in ALL Other options: Toluidine blue stain mast cells red-purple (metachromatic staining) and the background blue (ohochromatic staining). Non-specific esterase: AML M4 ,M5.
3
Acid phosphatase
Non-specific esterase
Myeloperoxidase
Toluidine blue
Pathology
Diagnostic procedures
a860aebf-47b6-4cef-9597-dde9c7f05d40
single
Which of the following is vitamin K-dependent clotting factor?
Ans. (A) Factor VII(Ref: Ganong, 21/e p547)Vitamin K-dependent factors are clotting factor II (prothrombin), VII, IX, and X and anti-clotting factors protein C and protein S.
1
Factor VII
Factor I
Factor XI
Factor XII
Pharmacology
Anticoagulants and Coagulants
66bbd3cd-42fa-4d7a-812e-4d62b6ae71a1
single
The word amalgam refers to a combination of any alloy or metal with
null
2
Gold
Mercury
Silver
Tin
Dental
null
447a95ec-06b8-4b20-8f79-457ef1d9b6c2
multi
Which of the following can be used safely in renal failure?
Pefloxacin It is the methyl derivative of norfloxacin; more lipid soluble, completely absorbed orally, penetrates tissues better and attains higher plasma concentrations. Passage into CSF is higher than other FQs-preferred for meningeal infections. It is highly metabolized-paly to norfloxacin which contributes to its activity. Pefloxacin has longer tYz: cumulates on repeated dosing achieving plasma concentrations twice as high as after a single dose. Because of this it is effective in many systemic infections in addition to those of the urinary and g.i. tract, though the in vitro activity is similar to norfloxacin. Dose of pefloxacin needs to be reduced in liver disease, but not in renal insufficiency. Pefloxacin is an alternative to ciprofloxacin for typhoid. However, it is less effective in grampositive coccal and Listeria infections. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:691
4
Ciprofloxacin
Ofloxacin
Lomefloxacin
Pefloxacin
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
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single
The maximum motility of the colon is seen in
The maximum motility of the colon is seen in the sigmoid colon. The rate of BER at sigmoid colon is 6/min. Rate of basal electric rhythm in various regions Segment Rate of BER Stomach 4/min Duodenum 12/min Distal ileum 8/min Cecum 2/min Sigmoid 6/min Ref: Ganong&;s Review of medical physiology 26th edition Pgno: 486
4
Ascending colon
Transverse colon
Descending colon
Sigmoid colon
Physiology
G.I.T
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single
Class I histocompatibility antigens are expressed on all except
Class I histocompatibility antigens are expressed on all nucleated cells and platelets
2
Macrophage
Lymphocyte
Platelets
Red Blood Cells
Anatomy
All India exam
6657e09f-0249-443f-a52e-fa038c43c664
multi
All of the following have poor penetration in brain and eyes except
Glycopyrrolate, Tiotropium bromide, Isopropamide are Atropine substitute Quaternary compounds. These compounds are lipid insoluble and therefore have poor penetration in brain and eyes. Glycopyrrolate blocks the peripheral muscarinic side effects(caused by increased Ach levels) without causing unwanted central anticholinergic effects. Pilocarpine and Arecoline being teiary aminesare readily absorbed and can cross the blood-brain barrier.
2
Glycopyrrolate
Pilocarpine
Tiotropium bromide
Isopropamide
Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics
e849d40c-b036-466d-8aa2-7c5b76b45e69
multi
Central placenta under the classification of placenta pre depending on the extension of the placenta into the lower segment comes under __________
Older classification of placenta pre (Browne&;s) Type Position Definition Type 1 Lateral Placenta dipping into lower segment but not reaching upto the os Type 2 Marginal Placental edge reached the os Type 3 Incomplete central Placenta covers the internal os when closed, but not when fully dilated Type 4 Central Placenta covers the internal os even when fully dilated Ref: Practical guide to High-risk pregnancy 3rd edition Pgno: 152
4
Type 1
Type 2
Type 3
Type 4
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
General obstetrics
4216b1cc-36cb-4512-bd10-7b5f6ad4db71
single
Cellular cementum and compact bone contain
null
3
Sharpey's fibres and elastic fibres
Collagen fibres and blood vessels
Canaliculi and incremental lines
Lacunae and elastic fibres
Dental
null
181ffa4e-310f-45a8-9a35-1d2f99354d73
single
The energy requirement of women are increased in first 6 months of lactation is
(550 kcal) (552- Park 20th)* Recommended daily intake of energy GroupBody weightEnergy allowance per day KgKcalMJAdult Ref Males(Light work)60242510.1 (Moderate work) 287512.0 (Heavy work) 380015.8Ref Females(Light work)5018757.8 (Moderate work) 22259.3 (Heavy work) 292512.2Pregnancy + 300+ 1.25Lactation (First 6 months) + 550+ 2.3 (6-12 months) + 400+ 1.68
3
300 Real
400 Real
550 Real
450 Real
Social & Preventive Medicine
Obstetrics, Paediatrics and Geriatrics
3d324b96-c1a6-46b9-bfef-19fe60ed4865
single
The most common type of emphysema associated with a-1 antitrypsin deficiency -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Panlobular
2
Centriacinar
Panlobular
Paraseptal
Distal acinar
Pathology
null
70ce4a3a-050b-400a-add1-35bcb4855e27
single
Endodermal sinus tumor is characterised by
Refer Robbins page no 977Also known as endodermal sinus tumor, yolk sac tumor is of interest because it is the most common testicular tumor in infants and children up to 3 years of age. In this age group it has a very good prognosis. In adults the pure form of this tumor is rare; instead, yolk sac elements frequently occur in combination with embryonal carcinoma.
3
Cal Exner body
Psammoma bodies
Schiller Duval bodies
Homer wright body
Pathology
Urinary tract
801079d6-2426-4107-9e60-6e111b9cb5ea
single
What is the root value of the posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh?
Posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh- S1,2,3
2
S1, S2
S1, S2, S3
S2, S3
S2, S3, S4
Anatomy
null
5a36f8dd-224e-469c-a9c2-5a13f43e9138
single
A diabetic patient in hypoglycemia does not regain consciousness despite blood glucose restoration to normal. Which one of the following is the not likely condition or explanation?
null
2
Cerebral edema
Alcohol intoxication
Post-ictal state
Cerebral haemorrhage
Medicine
null
e8e2f50d-9764-4291-965d-de1b52cf1fd1
single
Resting muscle length means?
Resting length: The length of the muscle fiber at the onset of contraction which is required to attain maximum active tension It is about 2 micrometers. Also known as optimum length. At this state, the ends of actin filaments extending from 2 successive Z disks barely overlap one another.
2
Length of actin and myosin before contraction
The length of the muscle fiber at the onset of contraction which is required to attain maximum active tension
It is about 4 micrometers
Length at which muscle has minimal tension
Physiology
Muscle
ec8fc4ef-ba3f-40a7-b7c6-e0da07ca9877
single
Which of the following is a common association with Celiac sprue ?
Both Celiac sprue and dermatitis herpetiformis are associated with HLA DQ2 and HLA DQ8
2
Herpes Gestationalis
Dermatitis herpetiformis
Pemphigus vulgaris
Bullous pemphigoid.
Pathology
null
9b2dd514-a84b-409b-be1a-dac32421116e
single
Semen squeeze
* Squeeze Technique: * Variation of the Masters and Johnson method. * As a man approaches climax, either he or his paner squeezes the tip of the penis just below the head of the penis as he approaches the point of climax. * Pressure is held there until the sensation of impending orgasm diminishes. * This pressure can even be held until there is some reduction in erection. * The process can then be staed over again so that over time a man prolongs the time period until he reaches ejaculation. * Useful to treat cases of premature ejaculation REF : HARRISON 21ST ED
2
Erectile dysfunction
Premature ejaculation
Retrograde ejaculation
Antegrade ejaculation
Psychiatry
All India exam
7b71a7e9-a736-461a-a63c-7728fa32dcde
single
The most common pre-malignant condition of oral carcinoma is ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Leukoplakia o There are two premalignant lesions for oral Cancer ? i) Leukoplakia ii) Erythroplakia o Leukoplakia is the most common premalignant lesions. o But, the risk of malignant transformation of erythroplakia is much higher than that seen with leukoplakia. o The most common predisposing factor for both these conditions is smoking.
1
Leukoplakia
Erythroplakia
Lichen planus
Fibrosis
Pathology
null
59c5db7f-5857-4eed-ab36-e0450b7ce35a
single
Which of the hormone secretion is increased if pituitary stalk is transected?
Ans. a (Prolactin) (Ref. H - 18th/pg. 50, 351)Pituitary stalk transection syndrome is relatively frequent and should be suspected after cranial trauma or fetal distress syndrome. The outcome is progressive evolution towards panhypopituitarism and these patients require regular clinical survey and hormonal controls.The following are causes of increased prolactin secretion:1. Pregnancy2. Stress or anxiety3. Pituitary stalk compression4. Estrogen therapyPituitary stalk transection is a non-negligible cause of growth hormone (GH) deficiency.
1
Prolactin
ACTH
GH
None
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Endocrine Control of the Menstrual Cycle
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multi
Affiliation refers to
Affiliation orders are legal documents declaring that a man is the father of a child under question.
1
Paternity dispute
Divorece case
Rape
Adultery
Physiology
All India exam
94a7e841-b185-4735-ab86-917cdbcf37de
single
Function of the maxillary sinus is:
Functional Importance and Clinical Considerations Many functions are attributed to maxillary sinus. Being an air space it lessens the weight of skull, gives resonance to the voice and protects the skull against mechanical shock. It warms and moistens the inspired air. The lysozyme it produces is bactericidal and thus contributes to the defense against bacterial infections.
4
Protects the skull against mechanical shock.
Defence against bacterial infection.
It warms and moistens the inspired air.
All of the Above.
Dental
null
03e2e8bc-76d7-4480-b4a1-ea9cfa46ba28
multi
Glasgow coma scale (GCS) in case of mild head injury: September 2011
Ans. B: 14/ 15 with loss of consciousness GCS in mild head injury: 14 or 15 with loss of consciousness
2
15 with no loss of consciousness
14/ 15 with loss of consciousness
13-Sep
8-Mar
Surgery
null
99fc797d-1f9d-4a73-96ff-ee3b4e516827
single
Given the chest x-ray of a 45 years old man complaining of cough for the past 6 months. The patient gives a history of working in a construction factory for the past 15 years. what could be the probable Diagnosis?
Calcified pleural plaques is most common radiological manifestation of asbestosis. Pleural plaques typically arise from the parietal pleura, most frequently from the lower poions of the chest, sparing the apices and costophrenic angles.
1
Asbestosis
Silicosis
Antracosis
Mesothelioma
Radiology
Respiratory Radiology
773d1016-ec99-4843-acf7-6c984e075b99
single
Which of the following immunoglobulins increased in primary bacterial infections is
B. i.e. (IgM) (89- Ananthanarayan 7th)* IgM is the first immunoglobulins synthesized in the antibody response (Primary response) and its presence in the serum indicates recent infections. Since it cannot cross the placenta, presence of IgM antibody in serum of foetus or new born indicates intrauterine infections. IgM is also a major component of rheumatoid factor (auto antibodies)**, primary biliary cirrhosis.**A single immunoglobulin is - 2 light chain, 2 heavy chain** IgA increased in respiratory & GIT infections* The most avidly complement fixing antibody is - IgM** (Opsonization)
2
IgG
IgM
IgA
IgD
Microbiology
Immunology
52740a79-93ee-461e-a34c-2b8fafa0957f
single
Which ECG findings represents a characteristic manifestation of digitalis toxicity?
Digitalis glycosides are effective in increasing myocardial contractility and in the treatment of certain atrial tachyarrhythmias. However, digoxin actually increases myocardial automaticity (increase in premature beats) and facilitates reentry (atrial tachycardias). Digoxin also slows conduction through A V nodal tissue and has central effects that can mimic vagal influence on the heart and thus may produce sinus arrest. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with variable block represents the classic rhythm of digitalis intoxication. Digoxin is profibrillatory, but its administration should not lead to atrial flutter. Therapeutic levels of digitalis generate characteristic ST - segment and T-wave changes in most individuals taking the drug. These changes are known as the digitalis effect and consist of ST -segment depression with flattening or inversion of the T wave. The digitalis effect is most prominent in leads with tall R waves. The digitalis effect is normal and predictable and does not require discontinuation of the- drug.
4
ST -segment depression
T-wave inversion
Atrial flutter
Atrial tachycardia with variable block
Unknown
null
f2b9ef93-b73c-4127-95a3-4f0880ffa80f
single
Macrosomia is seen in all except
Risk factors associated with macrosomia : Maternal diabetes Multiparity Increased maternal age Maternal obesity Prolonged gestation Male fetus Ref: Dutta Obs 9e pg 263.
3
Diabetes mellitus
Obesity
Hydrocephalus
Post maturity
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Medical, surgical and gynaecological illness complicating pregnancy
3aa93055-68c3-43a5-a486-e5b05015f093
multi
Ulcerative colitis involves
Answer 'c' i.e. Mucosa Ulcerative colitis involves mucosa and superficial submucosa with deeper layers unaffected except in fulminant disease.
3
Serosa
Lamina propria
Mucosa
Circularis muscle
Surgery
null
3cf5378f-2087-4e5d-b735-882246ac97cc
single
Bronchospasm can be precipitated by:
null
2
Adrenaline
Propranolol
Atropine
Salbutamol
Pharmacology
null
8125fcbc-0f52-4f4c-b842-f69eb49e5cca
single
Hypoxiema independent of
Hb [Ref: Ganong 23/e p617; http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hypoxemiaj Hypoxemia is decreased paial pressure of oxygen in blood. It is the oxygen that is dissolved in the blood not attached with hemoglobin; thus it does not depend on Hemoglobin. Hypoxemia is one of the types of Hypoxia kla Hypoxic Hypoxia. The Hypoxia dependent on hemoglobin is anemic Hypoxia. Hypoxia is defined as 0, deficiency at the tissue level. Hypoxia has been divided into four types. (1) Hypoxic hypoxia, in which the P02 of the aerial blood is reduced; (2) Anemic hypoxia, in which the aerial P02 is normal but the amount of hemoglobin available to carry 02 is reduced; (3) Stagnant or Ischemic hypoxia, in which the blood .flow to a tissue is so low that adequate 02 is not delivered to it despite a normal P02 and hemoglobin concentration; and (4) Histotoxic hypoxia, in which the amount of 02 delivered to a tissue is adequate but, because of the action of a toxic agent, the tissue cells cannot make use of the 02 supplied to them. Hypoxic Hypoxia (Hypoxemia) Hypoxic Hypoxia is the most common form of hypoxia seen clinically. Causes: 1.Low inspired paial pressure of oxygen (low Pi02) 2. Alveolar hypoventilation 3.Impairment of diffusion across blood-gas membrane 4.Ventilation-perfusion inequality 5. Shunt In contrast, primary hemoglobin deficiency, e.g. anemia is not a cause, since it doesn't decrease the paial pressure of oxygen in blood. Low inspired oxygen paial pressure (low PiO2) If the paial pressure of oxygen in the inspired gas is low, then a reduced amount of oxygen is delivered to the alveoli of the lung. The reduced oxygen paial pressure can be a result of reduced fractional oxygen content (low Fi02) or simply a result of low barometric pressure, as can occur at high altitudes. This reduced Pi02 can result in hypoxemia even if the lungs are normal. Alveolar hypoventilation If the alverolar ventilation is low, there may be insufficient oxygen delivered to the alveoli each minute. (e.g., airway obstruction, depression of the brain's respiratory center, or muscular weakness). Impaired diffusion Impaired diffusion across the blood-gas membrane in the lung can cause hypoxemia, e.g. pneumonia, pulmonary fibrosis Shunt Shunting of blood from the right side to the left side of the circulation (right-to-left shunt) is a powerful cause of hypoxemia. The shunt may be intracardiac (tong. cyanotic hea disease) or may be intrapulmonary.(Note that Left-toright shunting does not cause hypoxemia.) Ventilation-perfusion inequality Ventilation-perfusion inequality (or ventilation-perfusion mismatch) is a common cause of hypoxemia in people with lung disease. It is the areas of the lung with ventilation/perfusion ratios that are less than one (but not zero) that cause hypoxemia by this mechanism. A ventilation/perfusion ratio of zero is considered a shunt. (Not sure how PCO\\ is linked with hypoxemia or PaO2 ; possibl! hypoxemia causes lryperventilation which leads todecreased alveolar and aeial PCO2)
3
Fi02
altitude
Hb
PaCO2
Physiology
null
7d1afcaa-d454-4382-a3de-c3a36c7e333c
single
In a ulcer over skin if there is undermined edges it suggests
Flat sloping venous or septic, often with a transparent healing edge along pa of its circumference. Punched-out syphilitic, trophic, diabetic, ischaemic, leprosy. Undermined tuberculosis, pressure necrosis paicularly over the buttocks, carbuncles. Raised rodent ulcer , often with a slightlyrolled appearance. Raised and eveed carcinoma Hamilton bailey 19th edition Pg 64
2
Syphilis
Tuberculosis
Cancerous ulcer
Venous ulcer
Surgery
General surgery
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single
A surgical obturator has to be inserted
null
2
One day prior to the surgery
On the day of the surgery
14 days after the surgery
30 days after the surgery
Surgery
null
b2671f6c-7e87-4159-b480-2dc49730ed47
single
Examination of a patient revealed that he had right sided paralysis of the tongue, left sided hemiparesis and left sided lemniscal sensory loss. Occlusion of which of the following aery result in the following manifestations?
Patient is showing features of medial medullary syndrome. Occlusion of penetrating branch of veebral aery result in medial medullary syndrome. Medial medullary syndrome is characterised by a triad of:Ipsilateral hypoglossal nerve palsyContralateral hemiparesis with loss of deep sensationOcclusion of posterior inferior cerebellar aery result in Lateral medullary syndrome or Wallenberg syndrome. Patients with occlusion of this vessel develop dysphagia, hoarseness, ipsilateral paralysis of vocal cord, ipsilateral loss of pharyngeal reflex, veigo, nystagmus, ipsilateral facial analgesia and loss of taste on ipsilateral half of tongue posteriorly. Ref: Veigo: Its Multisensory Syndromes By Thomas Brandt page 309.
3
Anterior inferior cerebellar aery
vb
Penetrating branch of veebral aery
Anterior cerebral aery
Anatomy
null
cbc76bd5-bfbf-48bc-a013-7a1d78f8d412
single
Franklin disease is?
Answer- C. y-heavy chain diseaseFranklin's disease (gamma heavy chain disease)It is a very rare B-cell lymphoplasma cell proliferative disorder.It may be associated with autoimmune diseases and infection is a common characteristic of the disease.
3
heavy chain disease
6-heavy chain disease
y-heavy chain disease
u-heavy chain disease
Pathology
null
0975ae04-2764-4739-99ab-765921ef783f
single
Liquefactive necrosis is seen in?
Brain tissue is rich in liquefactive enzymes and it lacks stromal support, hence liquefactive necrosis is the type of necrosis that occurs in brain.
3
Heart
Spleen
Brain
Kidney
Pathology
null
a97b4e91-6408-4370-a2b7-fefb2b46ada2
single
A 68-year-old patient developed atrophic gastritis and, 2 years later, developed a macrocytic, hyperchromic anemia. His anemia has most likely occurred due to which one of the following reasons?
This patient has trouble absorbing vitamin B12 for two reasons. The first is that the stomach no longer produces adequate levels of intrinsic factor. Atrophic gastritis leads to the loss of the glandular cells of the stomach and replacement of those cells with intestinal and fibrous tissues. This will lead to a loss of function of the stomach cells, and less intrinsic factor will be produced and secreted. Additionally, B12 bound to proteins in the diet will have difficulty in being removed from their carrier proteins because of the lack of stomach acid. After the body's stores of B12 are exhausted (about 2 years), the anemia will develop because of the inability of reticulocytes to grow and divide. The loss of acid would fail to stimulate pancreatic bicarbonate, so the pH would stay the same in the duodenum and would not increase, such that folate absorption continues normally. The terminal ileum is not involved in atrophic gastritis but can be involved in Crohn disease. Iron deficiency would give a microcytic, hypochromic anemia, not the observed anemia. Heme synthesis is not impaired under these conditions.
1
The atrophic gastritis leads to vitamin B12 malabsorption.
The atrophic gastritis raises the pH in the duodenum, leading to folate malabsorption.
The terminal ileum is also involved, so iron is malabsorbed.
The atrophic gastritis leads to increased red blood cell absorption by the spleen.
Biochemistry
Endocrinology
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single
First dose of vitamin A should be given at: September 2005
Ans. C: 9 months National programme for prevention of nutritional blindness focuses on Promoting consumption of vitamin A rich foods by pregnant and lactating women and by children under 5 years of age. Administration of massive doses of vitamin A up to 5 years. First dose of 100,000 IU with measles vaccination at 9 months and subsequent doses of 200,000 IU each, every 6 months up to the age of 5 years should be given.
3
3 months
6 months
9 months
12 months
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
Tumbling motility is characteristic of the following organism:
Listeria monocytogenes is a Gram-positive rod with some bacteriologic features that resemble those of both corynebacteria and streptococci. Listeria species are catalase-positive, which distinguishes them from streptococci, and they produce a characteristic tumbling motility in fluid media at temperatures below 30degC, which distinguishes them from corynebacteria. Listeria are not difficult to grow in culture, producing small, beta-hemolytic colonies on blood agar. This species is able to grow slowly in the cold even at temperatures as low as 1degC. Ref: Ray C.G., Ryan K.J. (2010). Chapter 26. Corynebacterium, Listeria, and Bacillus. In C.G. Ray, K.J. Ryan (Eds), Sherris Medical Microbiology, 5e.
4
Proteus vulgaris
Proteus mirabilis
Vibrio
Listeria
Microbiology
null
ddaf0397-b89c-4612-8061-923acfe413e0
single
A 17 year old female patient has hirsutism, hyperglycemia, obesity, muscle wasting, and increased circulating levels of ACTH. The most likely cause of her symptoms is:
This female patient's symptoms are classic for a primary elevation of ACTH (Cushing's Disease). Exogenous steroids would produce similar symptoms, except that circulating ACTH would be low because of negative feedback suppression at both hypothalamic (CRF) and anterior pituitary levels (ACTH). Addison's Disease is caused by glucocoicoid deficiency, not excess. Hypophysectomy would lead to a decrease in ACTH or remove the source of it.
2
Primary adrenocoical insufficiency
Primary overproduction of ACTH
Exogenous steroids
Hypophysectomy
Pathology
null
7be5ece3-23bf-4912-af58-c3d5e4db1f70
single
Tennis elbow is -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Lateral Epicondylitis o Repeat from previous sessions.
2
Medial Epicondylitis
Lateral Epicondylitis
Ulnar collateral ligament injury
Radial head subluxation
Orthopaedics
Injuries Around Arm & Elbow
73c8745d-63d8-4914-90a1-dd01782851ee
single
Vague elaborate and circumstantial speech with magical thinking is characteristic of :
Schizotypal (cluster A ) personality is characterized by odd speech that is vague or rambling, discomfo in social situations, strange thinking and lack of emotional appropriateness *Ideas of reference (not delusions) *Odd beliefs and magical thinking *Unusual perceptual disturbances *Paranoid ideation and suspiciousness *Odd thinking and speech without coherence *SUPERSTITIONS/TELEPATHY *ODD DRESSING *ODD SPEECH *LACK OF EMOTIONS Reference: Kaplon and sadock, 11 th edition, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 845
4
Paranoid
Borderline
Schizoid
Schizotypal
Psychiatry
All India exam
3bc83b0e-85f2-4850-b5c5-ef3e2d4c87ee
single
The skin overlying the region where a venous "cut-down" is made to access the Great saphenous vein is supplied by:
The skin overlying the region where a cut down is made to grant access to the great saphenous vein is supplied by the saphenous nerve. The saphenous nerve is a branch of the femoral nerve. Ref: Textbook of Pediatric Emergency Procedures By Christopher King, Page 273; Clinical Anatomy By Regions By Richard S. Snell, Page 571
1
Femoral nerve
Sural nerve
Tibial nerve
Superficial peroneal nerve
Anatomy
null
bc35ffc2-ce5b-4e7e-8d38-d45522efafb0
single
A 10-year-old boy presents with nasal obstruction and intermittent profuse epistaxis. He has a firm pinkish mass in the nasopharynx. All of the following investigations are done in this case except-
Biopsy can cause profuse bleeding, therefore should be avoided. Investigations used for NFA are :- Soft tissue lateral film of nasopharynx X-ray paranasal sinus and base of skull Contrast CT of skull (investigation of choice) MRI Carotid angiography
4
X - ray base of skull
Carotid angiography
CT scan
Biopsy
ENT
null
ed489bb3-026b-4390-8924-38a3eb1d41f1
multi
Hanging in which body is fully suspended & feet are not touching the ground -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Complete hanging Complete hanging: Body is fully suspended and no pa of body touches the ground. Constricting force is weight of body.Incomplete (paial) hanging : 'There is paial suspension and some body pa (usually lower) is touching the ground. Constricting force is weight of the head (5-6 kg).
2
Paial hanging
Complete hanging
Homicidal hanging
Suicidal hanging
Forensic Medicine
null
c55a5d5a-3daa-4115-92a2-6d8d5fdffd9c
single
Forschheimer's sign:
Forschheimer spots are a fleeting enanthem seen as small, red spots (petechiae) on the soft palate in 20% of patients with rubella Seen during the prodromal period or on the first day of the rash. They precede or accompany the skin rash of rubella. They are not diagnostic of rubella, as similar spots can be seen in measles and scarlet fever.
1
Seen in rubella
Are red macules or petechiae confined to the hard palate.
Found after 2nd day of the rash
Pathognomonic of rubeola
Dental
Viral infections
a6f0954a-be18-4ef1-87b4-b44427d3f88a
single
Phagocytosis in brain is caused by ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Microglia
2
Astrocytes
Microglia
Oligodendrocytes
Ependymal cells
Pathology
null
c4ba054b-2285-4fba-9503-2c6850484218
single
First branch of the facial nerve is:
(a) Greater petrosal nerve(Ref. Scott Brown, 6th ed., 1385)The greater superficial petrosal nerve arises from the geniculate ganglion at the first genu. This is the first branch.The 2nd branch is the nerve to the stapedius given at the pyramid.The 3rd is the chorda tympani given 4-6mm before the exit of facial nerve from stylomastoid foramen.Lesser superficial petrosal nerve is not a branch of facial. It arises from tympanic plexus and supplies the Otic ganglion. Otic ganglion is for the parasympathetic supply to the parotid. Secretomotor fibres to the parotid arise from glossopharyngeal nerve, reach the otic ganglion through the lesser superficial petrosal nerve via the tympanic plexus and then reach the parotid through the auriculotemporal nerve arising from the otic ganglion.
1
Greater petrosal nerve
Lesser petrosal nerve
Chorda tympani nerve
Nerve to the stapedius
ENT
Facial Nerve And Its Disorders
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A 26 year male came with hypopigmented macule over chest with scratch sign positive. Diagnosis is:
Hypopigmented patch over chest and trunk with fine scaling and scratch sign positive (i.e appearance of scales on scratching ) is suggestive of Pityriasis versicolor which is a fungal intection caused by Malassezia.
4
Hansen's disease
PKDL
Pityriasis alba
Pityriasis versicolor
Dental
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New born babies are able to breathe and suck at the same time due to
Infant&;s larynx is positioned high in the neck, the level of glottis being opposite to C3 or C4 at rest and reaches C1 or C2 during swallowing. This high position allows the epiglottis to meet soft palate and make a nasopharyngeal channel for nasal breathing during suckling. The milk feed passes separately over the dorsum of tongue and the sides of epiglottis, thus allowing breathing and feeding to go on simultaneously. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
3
Wide sho tongue
Sho soft palate
High larynx
Sho pharynx
Pediatrics
New born infants
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Shoest action local anaesthetic:
Shoest Acting LA Chlorprocaine Longest acting LA Dibucaine
4
Procaine
Cocaine
Dibucaine
Chloroprocaine
Anaesthesia
FMGE 2018
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Most common adverse effect on eye in contraceptive usage is:
Ans. Optic neuritis
3
Colour blindness
Ring scotoma
Optic neuritis
Nystagmus
Ophthalmology
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single
Lisfranc's fracture dislocation involves:
C i.e. Trans MetatarsalRef: Fundamentals of Orthopedics, 2nd edition, Mohindra and Jain, Jay pee Publishers, page 160Explanation:Lisfranc's Fracture DislocationThe Lisfranc joint consists of the tarsometatarsal joint complex, which includes the three cuneiforms, cuboid and their articulations with the five metatarsal bones.Dislocations of the Lisfranc joint are the most common dislocations of the foot*.Mechanism of injury: These injuries usually result from high-energy injuries like:Forced hyperflexion in road traffic accidents (Figure 1).Fall from height.On X-ray, there is increased space between the medial cuneiform and the second metatarsal (due to rupture of Lisfranc ligament that runs between these points) called as Fleck sign*.For treating the dislocation has to be reduced accurately either by closed or open means and has to be fixed with K wires or screws.
3
Lunate
Scaphoid
Trans metatarsal
Capitate
Orthopaedics
Injuries to the Leg, Ankle & Foot
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Which among the following is not involved in PQLI?
Ans: c (Per capita income) Ref: Park, 19th ed, p. 16Physical quality of life index (PQL1) include:1. Infant mortality rate2. Life expectancy at age one3. Literacy rateScale of PQLI varies from 0 to 100.Human Development Index (HDI)It includes:1. Life expectancy at birth (Longevity)2. Knowledge (Adult literacy rate and mean years of schooling)3. IncomeThe HDI values ranges between 0 and 1.Gender related developmental index (GDI) and gender empowerment measure are new indices.HDI measures average achievements in basic dimensions of human development.Human poverty index (HPI) measures deprivation in basic dimensions of human development.Sullivan index:It is the expectation of life free from disability. Calculated by subtracting from life expectancy the probable duration of bed disability and inability to perform major activities.HALE (Health Adjusted Life Expectancy)It is the equivalent number of years in full health that a newborn can expect to live based on current rates of ill health and mortality.DALY (Disability Adjusted Life Year)DALY expresses years of life lost to premature death and year lived with disability adjusted for the severity of the disability.One DALY is "one lost year of healthy life".
3
Infant mortality rate
Life expectancy
Per capita income
Literacy
Social & Preventive Medicine
Concept of Health and Disease
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A patient suffering from AIDS presents with a history of dyspnea and non-productive cough x-ray shows bilateral perihilar opacities without pleural effusion and lymphadenopathy. Most probable etiological agent is –
Dyspnea with a nonproductive cough, and bilateral perihilar opacities without pleural effusion and lymphadenopathy, in an AIDS patient suggest the diagnosis of P. Carinii pneumonia. In TB, cough is productive (with sputum) and there is associated lymphadenopathy. Pleural effusion may also occur.
4
Tuberculosis
CMV
Kaposis sarcoma
Pneumocystis carinii
Radiology
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Which of the following is live attenuated vaccine-
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Sabin polio vaccineo Vaccine is an immuno-biological substance designed to produce specific protection against a given disease. It stimulates the production of protective antibody and other immune mechanisms. Vaccine may be of following types:-1) Live vaccines# Live vaccines are produced by organisms which are alive but there pathogenicity (virulence) is reduced. Thus these vaccines are called "live attenuated vaccines".# Important examples of live vaccines are BCG, OPV (Sabin oral polio vaccine), measles, mumps, rubella, yellow fever (17D vaccine), typhoid oral (typhoral), chicken pox, influenza, plague, epidemic typhus and hepatitis A.2) Killed vaccines (Inactivated vaccines)# Killed vaccines are prepared by killing (or inactivating) the organism by heat or chemical.# Important killed vaccines are pertussis (whooping cough), IPV (injectable polio vaccine/salk vaccine), cholera, typhoid, plague, influenza, Japanese encephalitis, KFD, meningococcal meningitis, hepatitis A, and rabies.
2
Salk polio vaccine
Sabin polio vaccine
Rabies vaccine
KFD vaccine
Microbiology
Immunity
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Most common GI malignancy of childhood
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Lymphoma Over all hemangioma is most common Tumor in infant. Hemangioma is usually benign in Nature. Leukemia is most common malignancy in pediatric age gyp. 2"' most common is CNS Tumor = Lymphoma is the most common malignancy of the gastrointestinal tract in children. About 30% of children with non-Hodgkin lymphoma present with abdominal tumors.
2
Adenocarcinoma
Lymphoma
Sarcoma
carcinoid
Pediatrics
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True statement regarding 'Fistula in ano' is:
Intersphincteric fistula is the most common type of 'fistula in ano'. Ref: Bailey and Love's Sho Practice of Surgery, 25th Edition, Page 1263.
4
Posterior fistulae have straight tracks
High fistulae can be operated with no fear of incontinence
High and low divisions are made in relation to the pelvic floor
Intersphincteric is the most common type
Surgery
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