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Waves present in electroretinogram are all EXCEPT:
ANSWER: (D) d waveREF: Khurana 4th ed p. 489Electroretinogram is composed of:a wave : Rods and Conesb wave : Muller cellsc wave: Pigment epithelium
4
a wave
bwave
c wave
d wave
Ophthalmology
Neuro-Ophthalmology
2ff28d81-b1dc-4b5c-9ad8-1587b75864cd
multi
Rapid diffusion of water across cell membranes depends on the presence of water channels, called aquaporins. Proximal convoluted tubule have:
Aquaporin-1 is localized to both the basolateral and apical membrane of the proximal tubules and its presence allows water to move rapidly out of the tubule along the osmotic gradients set up by active transpo of solutes, and isotonicity is maintained. Ref: Barrett K.E., Barman S.M., Boitano S., Brooks H.L. (2012). Chapter 37. Renal Function & Micturition. In K.E. Barrett, S.M. Barman, S. Boitano, H.L. Brooks (Eds), Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 24e.
1
Aquaporin 1
Aquaporin 2
Aquaporin 5
Aquaporin 9
Physiology
null
8a7f180a-d10e-4b2b-ae57-3cc6e97f022a
multi
E.H. Angle introduced his classification of malocclusion in:
ANGLE'S CLASSIFICATION OF MALOCCLUSION In 1899, Edward Angle classified malocclusion based on the mesial-distal relation of the teeth, dental arches and jaws. He considered the maxillary first permanent molar as a fixed anatomical point in the jaws and the key to occlusion. Ref: Textbook of orthodontics Gurkeerat Singh 2nd ed page no 163
3
1876
1900
1899
1903
Dental
null
659d8fb4-e1d8-4fbd-a09a-b08cb36b0cbf
single
Histiocytes are:
null
1
Scavenger cells
Allergic cells
Released in immunologic response
Leukocytes
Physiology
null
608b0c0c-74a3-48c2-92b3-f59e98d2a7e8
multi
How much is the probable bilirubin level of this neonate?
Yellow staining of palms & soles indicates a bilirubin level > 15 mg/dl Modified Kramer rule:
4
6 mg/dl
9 mg/dl
12 mg/dl
18 mg/dl
Pediatrics
Neonatal Jaundice
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single
A patient with glaucoma is being treated with systemic beta blocker. All of the foll,twing can be given to the patient except
Ans. c. Levobunolol Brimonidine, dorzolamide and prostaglandin are topical anti-glaucoma drugs. These drugs do not have systemic side effects, while levobunolol (beta-blocker) is systemic anti-glaucoma drug given orally, having systemic side effects. That is why in patients with glaucoma treated with systemic beta blockers, levobunolol may add on the side effects of beta-blockers, hence avoided in the above mentioned patient. Topical Anti-glaucoma Drugs Adrenergic agonist Non-selective: Epinephrine, Dipivefrine Alpha2-selective: Apraclonidine, Brimonidine Adrenergic antagonist Beta--blocker (Non-selective): Timolol, Levobunolol, Caeolol, Metipranolol, Adapralol Betal-blocker: Betaxolol Miotics (direct parasympatomimetics) Pilocarpine, Physostigmine Ecothiophate, Carbachol, Demacarium Prostaglandin analogues Latanoprost Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors Dorzolamide Systemic Antiglaucoma Drugs Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors Acetazolamide Dichlorphenamide Methazolamide Hyperosmotic agents Mannitol Glycerol
3
Brimonidine
Dorzolamide
Levobunolol
Prostaglandin
Pharmacology
null
b463fe87-c185-4ce8-ad60-ffe951a07db5
multi
Not a mechanism of Action of Insulin
INSULIN is a protein hormone formed from proinsulin in the beta cells of the pancreatic islets of Langerhans. The major fuel-regulating hormone, it is secreted into the blood in response to a rise in concentration of blood glucose or amino acids. Insulin promotes the storage of glucose and the uptake of amino acids, increases protein and lipid synthesis, and inhibits lipolysis and gluconeogenesis.Tyrosine kinase is any of a group of enzymes that influence signaling between cells, esp. as relates to cell growth and death, cellular adhesion and movement, and cellular differentiation. Abnormalities in tyrosine kinases are found in some human diseases, including chronic myeloid (myelogenous) leukemia.Glucose transpoer type 4, also known as GLUT4, is a protein that in humans is encoded by the GLUT4 gene. GLUT4 is the insulin-regulated glucose transpoer found in adipose tissues and striated muscle (skeletal and cardiac) that is responsible for insulin-regulated glucose transpo into the cell. This protein is expressed primarily in muscle and fat cells, the major tissues in the body that respond to insulin.Na+, K+-ATPase is an enzyme that spans the plasma membrane and hydrolyzes ATP to provide the energy necessary to drive the cellular sodium pump.Hexokinase an enzyme that catalyzes the transfer of a high-energy phosphate group of a donor to d-glucose, producing d-glucose-6-phosphate.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology;24th edition; page no-436
3
Tyrosine kinase-beta cell stimulation
Incroporation of GLUT-4 into cells
Inhibition of Na+K+ATPase
Hexokinase stimulation
Physiology
Endocrinology
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single
In carcinoma prostate with matastasis which is raised
null
2
ESR
Alkaline phosphatase
Acid phosphatase
Bilirubin
Surgery
null
d7278944-1a25-4859-bf55-01600c4ae421
single
Inhibitor of Complex I of ETC-
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Rotenone Inhibitors of Electron transport chain (Respiratory chain)o Complex I:- Barbiturates (amoborbital), piercidin A, rotenone, ehlorpromazine, guanithidine.o Complex II:- Carboxin, TTFA, malonate.o Complex III:- Dimercaprol, BAL, actinomycin A, Naphthyloquinone.o Complex IV (cytochrome c oxidase) Carbon monoxide (CO), cyanide (CN-), H2S, azide (N3 )
3
H2S
2, 4 DND
Rotenone
BAL
Biochemistry
Respiratory Chain
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multi
Diuretics that can be used in renal failure is -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Furosemide Loop diuretics (furosemide) can be used in renal failure. Among thiazides, only metolazone is used in renal failure.
1
Furosetnide
Chlohiazide
Mannitol
Chlohalidone
Pharmacology
null
cadae1b1-a5cb-49f9-b6fd-33c81ae6682f
single
patient is known case of CAD suddenly presents with chest pain , shoness of breath, and with blood pressure of 90/60mmhg o/e cold clammy skin is observed, with urine output of 25ml/hr .what is the drug of choice ?
Cardiogenic shock is a condition in which your hea suddenly can&;t pump enough blood to meet your body&;s needs. The condition is most often caused by a csevere hea attack. Angina Pectoris, squeezing pain in center of chest. # Dysrhythmias * Diminished hea sounds * Acute drop in blood pressure > 30 mm Hg * Decreased cardiac output # Tachypneas, shoness of breath # Weak, thready pulse # Sweating, cold hand & feet # Urine output < 30 mL/hr PHARMACOLOGIC MANAGEMENT : Inotropic Agents augments the coronary blood flow Dopamine stimulates adrenergic and dopaminergic receptors Action depend upon the dose *(low dose): 1-5 mcg/kg/min IV- increase urine output and renal blood flow *(medium dose): 5-15 mcg/kg/min IV ; increase renal blood flow, cardiac output, hea rate, and cardiac contractitlity *(high dose): 20-50 mcg/kg/min IV ; increase blood pressure and stimulate vasoconstriction; may not have a beneficial effect in blood pressure; may increase risk of tachyarrhythmias . ref : kd tripathi 8th ed
3
droxidopa
adrenaline
dopamine
dobutamine
Pharmacology
All India exam
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single
Neoadjuvant chemotherapy stands for -
Ans. B. Chemotherapy before surgeryNeoadiuvant chemotherapy refers to Combination of Chemotherapy and surgery/radiotherapy in which chemotherapy is given prior to surgery/radiotherapy.
2
Chemotherapy along with surgery
Chemotherapy before surgery
Chemotherapy after surgery
Chemotherapy along with radiation therapy
Radiology
null
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single
Flowing wax appearance on anterior and posterior borders of vertebrae with normal intervertebral disc space occurring due to ligament calcification is seen in –
Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis: DISH (hyperostotic spondylosis, Forestier's disease) is a multifocal entity of older people characterized by "flowing ossifications of the spine" involving four or more contiguous vertebrae and hyperostosis of some ligamentous attachments. The thick, flowing, florid, exuberant corticated plaques are extensive than that seen in degenerative changes producing so-called 'dripping candle wax or flowing candle wax' appearance.
2
Ankylosing spondylitis
Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hypertrophy
Psoriatic spondyloarthropathy
RA
Radiology
null
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single
Which is false about hemolytic anemia?
Ans. (a) Decreased LDH(Ref: 9th/pg 631-632)In hemolytic anemia, there is decreased haptoglobin, decreased RBC survival, increased unconjugated bilirubin & Increased LDH.
1
Decreased LDH
Decreased Haptoglobin
Decreased RBC survival
Increased Uncongugated Bilirubin
Pathology
Misc. (R.B.C)
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Oligohydramnios is seen in -
Ans. is 'a' i.e. Renal agenesis Renal agenesis prevents urine formation which leads to oligohydramnios.Oligohydramnios is condition where amniotic fluid is deficient in amount to the extent of 100ml or entirely absentAetiologyRenal agenesis*Amnion nodosum*IUGR*Post maturity*Obst. of urinary tract (post urethral Valve*)
1
Renal agenesis
Oesophageal atresia
Exomphalos
Neural tube defect
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Hydramnios and Oligo Hydramnios
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Dermatome supplying the middle finger is-
Ans. is 'b' i.e., C7 * Sensory distribution of upper limb is as followThe cutaneous nervesRegion suppliedNerve(s)Root valueDerived fromUpper part of pectoral region, and skin over upper part of deltoidSupraclavicularC3,C4Cervical plexusArm 1. Upper medial partIntercostobrachialT22nd intercostal2. Lower medial partMedial cutaneous nerve of armT1,T2Medial cord3. Upper lateral part (including skin over lower part of deltoid)Upper lateral cutaneous nerve of armC5, C6Axillary nerve4. Lower lateral partLower lateral cutaneous nerve of armC5, C6Radial nerve5. Posterior aspectPosterior cutaneous nerve of armC5Radial nerveForearm 1. Medial sideMedial cutaneous nerve of forearmC8,T1Medial cord2. Lateral sideLateral cutaneous nerve of forearmC5> C6Musculocutaneous3. Posterior sidePosterior cutaneous nerve of forearmC6, C7, C8Radial nervePalm 1. Lateral two-thirdsPalmar cutaneous branch of medianC6, C7Median2. Medial one-thirdPalmar cutaneous branch of ulnarC8UlnarDorsum of hand 1. Medial half including proximal phalanges of medial 2 1/2 digitsDorsal branch of ulnarC8Ulnar2. Lateral half including proximal phalanges of medial 2 1/2 digitsSuperficial terminal branch of radialC6, C7RadialDigits Palmar aspect, and dorsal aspect of middle and distal phalanges 1. Lateral 3V6 digitsPalmar digital branch of medianC7Median2. Medial 1 Vi digitsPalmar digital branch of ulnarC8Ulnar
2
C6
C7
C8
T1
Anatomy
Upper Extremity
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single
A 10 year old boy is having hypeension. There is no other significant history and urine analysis is cause for his hypeension ?
All these renal disease leads to hypeension. But except in polycystic kidney disease, all other will show characteristics urine findings. Polycystic kidney disease is usually asymptotic. Hypeension devolops about 10 to 20 years of age. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
2
Chronic glomerulonephritis
Polycystic kidney disease
Reflux nephropathy
Renal Parenchymal disease
Pediatrics
C.V.S
65f3144c-1d8b-480e-bdc7-b18e4dfa4d96
single
What is the mechanism of action of Fulvestrant?
Fulvestrant: is an estrogen receptor antagonist that downregulates the estrogen receptor and has no agonist effects. Fulvestrant competitively inhibits binding of oestradiol to the estrogen receptor (ER), with a binding affinity that is 89% that of oestradiol. Reduces the number of estrogen receptor. Good to know: It is approved for the treatment of metastatic breast cancer in postmenopausal women who have failed antiestrogen therapy. Given once in a month as a intramusclar injection. Ref: Goodman & Gillman's Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics' 12th Edition, Page 1759, 1760.
4
Selective estrogen agonist
Selective esrogen receptor modulator
Selective esrogen receptor upregulator
Selective esrogen receptor downregulator
Pharmacology
null
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single
8 year old child with hematuria in 5 days after throat infection?
Ans. is 'b'i.e., Ig A Nephnopathy IgA nephropathy Predominant deposition of IgA in glomeruli. RECURRENT episode of gross rematuria that also precipitation by UI in last 2-5 days. PSGN Acute GN following infection by group A - -hemolytic streptococci. Common in school age children. o Streptococcal infection usually of throat (4 or 12 strain) or skin (strain 49) by 1-4 week prior to AGN. Edema, oliguria, hypeension, ARF, hematurea of abrupt onset.
2
Post streptococcal nephropathy
Ig A nephropathy
Nephrotic syndrome
can be a or b
Pediatrics
null
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single
Following is derivative of dental lamina:
Options 'C' Rests of Serres are remnants of dental laminal epithelium entrapped within gingiva. Option 'A & B' are remnants of Hertwig epithelial root sheath.
3
Epithelial rests of Malassez
Enamel pearls
Rests of Serrae
All of the above
Dental
null
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multi
Ascent to high altitude may cause all of the following except: March 2012
Ans: C i.e. Cerebral palsyComplications of ascent to high altitudeHACE/ high altitude cerebral edema is rare, life threatening and usually preceded by AMS/ acute mountain sicknessHAPE/ high altitude pulmonary edema is a life threatening condition which usually occurs in the first 4 days after scent above 2500 m.Venous thrombosis has been repoed at altitudes over 6000 m.
3
Cerebral edema
Pulmonary edema
Cerebral palsy
Venous thrombosis
Medicine
null
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multi
Which of the following are pathological hallmark of Alzheimer&;s disease
The two hallmark pathologies required for a diagnosis of Alzheimer&;s disease(AD) are the extracellular plaque deposits of the Beta-amyloid peptide (Ab) and the intracellular flame-shaped neurofibrillary tangles of the Hyper-Phophorylated microtubule binding protein &;tau&;. Histological Hallmarks of Alzheimer&;s disease: b-Amyloid Plaque (Extracellular) Neurofibrillary Tangles (Intracellular) b-Amyloid Neuritic plaques are formed by extracellular accumulation of beta amyloid deposits. &;Neuritic&; or &;Senile&; b-amyloid plaques are an early histopathological sign of Alzheimer&;s disease (that occur rarely in healthy subjects) The amyloid b-protein accumulated in single Neuritic plaques is toxic to surrounding structures and adjacent neurons. Clinico-pathological studies have shown that amyloid burden does not directly correlate with severity or duration of dementia. Neurofibrillary tangles are formed by intracellular accumulation of hyper-phophorylated microtubule binding protein &;tau&; NFT&;s occur in many neurodegenerative diseases and/or a group of diseases called &;taupathies&;. These include Frontotemporal dementia, Pick&;s disease etc., The co-occurence of b-amyloid plaques with NFT&;s suggests a diagnosis of Alzheimer&;s disease (AD) The NFT&;s are toxic to the neurons and neurons with NFT&;s eventually die and degnerate leaving a residual &;ghost tangle&; in the extramedullary space reminding of the pyramidal cell body in which it was initially formed. Clinico-pathological studies have shown that dementia correlates more strongly with NFT&;s than with senile plaques (b-Amyloid) Ref: Bailey and Love 27th edition
3
Intercellular Lewy Bodies
Intracellular Pick's Bodies
Extracellular Beta Amyloid Plaques
Extracellular Neurofibrillary Tangles
Pathology
Nervous system
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multi
Which of the following is not a cause for the development of carpal tunnel syndrome?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Menorrhagia * There are many causes of carpal tunnel syndrome: -1) Idiopathic: - This is the most common cause.2) Pregnancy and menopause3) Metabolic: - Gout, Diabetes mellitus4) Endocrine: - Hypothyroidism, Myxedema, Acromegaly, Hyperparathyroidism.5) Deposition disorder:- Amyloidosis, Sarcoidosis, Rheumatid arthritis, Leukemia, CRF, Mucopoly-saccharoidosis.6) Alcoholism7) Local causes: - Malunited colie's fracture, osteo-arthritis of the carpal bones, synovitits of flexor tendon sheath, hematoma.
4
Alcoholism
Sarcoidosis
Gout
Menorrhagia
Orthopaedics
Miscellaneous
55a55d2f-2795-4614-b35e-d8335ef0fa92
single
Which of the following childhood disorder improves with increase in age –
Temper tantrum reaches its peak point during second and third year of life and gradually subsides in between 3 to 6 years as the child learng to control his negativism and complies to the requests of others.
3
Conduct disorder
Emotional problems
Temper tantrum
Sleep disorder
Pediatrics
null
b9fd7182-d6a5-4e10-b9ef-a2f26a3a9b62
single
Which of the following is most likely to be the cause of painful third nerve palsy of sudden onset in a man of 40
Ans. Rupture of a supraclinoid aneurysm
4
Rupture of an infraclinoid aneurysm
Sphenoidal ridge meningioma
Diabetes mellitus neuropathy
Rupture of a supraclinoid aneurysm
Ophthalmology
null
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single
Condition in which lid is adhered to conjunctiva is-
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Symblepharon * A symblepharon is a partial or complete adhesion of the palpebral conjunctiva of the eyelid to the bulbar conjunctiva of the eyeball. It results either from disease (conjunctival sequelae of trachoma) or trauma.
2
Ankyleblepharon
Symblepharon
Trichiasis
Madarosis
Ophthalmology
Lid
180a5762-2c82-4bb7-863d-8c30659ad414
single
A 10 year old child due to choked suddenly on consuming food . On the failed attempt of Valsalva's manoeuvre a needle cricothyrotomywas performed . It would open into which of the following regions?
Infraglottic cavity extends from rima glottidis to the lower border of the cricoid cailage. The rima glottidis is the space between the vocal folds and arytenoid cailages. Vestibule extends from the laryngeal inlet to the vestibular folds. Ventricle extends between vestibular fold and the vocal fold. Piriform recess is a pear-shaped fossa in wall of the laryngopharynx lateral to the arytenoid cailage.
4
Rima glottidis
Laryngeal vestibule
Laryngeal ventricle
Infraglottic cavity
Anatomy
Pharynx, larynx and trachea and cranial nerves 3,4,6
fa28d875-46fc-4997-9eec-0fd9c8290986
single
The main infectious agent associated with recurrent pulmonary infections in patients with cystic fibrosis is _____________ .
Pseudomonas affect small children with malnutrition and poor immunity.it colonise airway of patients with cysticfibrosis and cause recurrent pulmonary exacerbations. pathology:well demarcated areas of consolidation and necrosis occur due to vasculitis Ref : ESSENTIAL PEDIATRICS ,O.P.GHAI, PG NO:355,7 th edition
2
Mycoplasma
Pseudomonas
Pneumocystis
Aspergilus
Pediatrics
Respiratory system
82ebbe53-d8c6-42bb-8625-e5cdf1a2d7d1
single
Pleomorphic adenoma is
null
4
More common in males
Endothelial origin
Most common site is parotid
More common in females
ENT
null
110e8193-b795-4a9f-9c38-c2481b9b7e10
single
Which is not a product of the pentose phosphate pathway?
Step 5: Transketolase Reaction - Transketolase is a thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) dependent enzyme. It transfers two-carbon unit (with keto group) from xylulose-5-phosphate to ribose-5-phosphate to form a 7 carbon sugar, sedoheptulose-7-phosphate and glyceraldehyde-3- phosphate. Transketolase enzyme will transfer the group from a donor ketose to an aldose acceptor. In thiamine deficiency transketolase activity is decreased. The reaction may be summarized as 5C + 5C = 7C + 3C. REF: DM VASUDEVAN TEXTBOOK OF BIOCHEMISTRY, SIXTH EDITION,PG.NO.,114.
2
Sedoheptulose-7-phosphate
O2
Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
NADPH
Biochemistry
Metabolism of carbohydrate
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single
Which is not an extrapyramidal tract -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Corticospinal tract Descending pathwaysPyramidal tractExtrapvramidal tractso Corticospinal tracto Rubrospinal tracto Tectospinal tracto Vestibulospinal tracto Reticulospinal tracto This question is a direct repeat from NBE based A1 2013-14.
3
Reticulospinal tract
Rubrospinal tract
Corticospinal tract
Tectospinal tract
Physiology
Neural Tracts
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In cerebellar lesion NOT seen is
Resting tremor is the manifestation of parkinsonism In cerebellar lesion intentional tremors are seen
3
Ataxia
Nystagmus
Resting tremors
Past pointing
Anatomy
Neuroanatomy 1
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single
A 2 yrs old boy, is brought with sudden onset of stridor and respiratory difficulty. The chest examination reveals decreased breath sounds and wheeze in the right side. The chest X-Ray showed an opaque right hemithorax. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis:
Foreign body inhalation is most common cause of acute collapse with peak age incedence in 1-2 years. Ref: Textbook of Pediatrics By K.N Agarwal, 2010, Page 235
4
Pneumothorax
Acute epiglottitis
Massive pleural effusion
Foreign body aspiration
Radiology
null
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single
Dental caries is caused by
Streptococcus mutans is an alpha Hemolytic streptococcus which is a pa of the normal flora of the oral cavity. This gram-positive coccus is commonly found in the mouth from where it can spread to cause dental caries or endocarditis in individuals with risk factors(dental extraction in individuals with damaged hea valves). The bacteria has a polysaccharide coat that allows it to stick to teeth and also to the damaged hea valves. It produces acid from sugar in saliva and this promotes erosion of tooth enamel. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 221
2
Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus mutans
Enterococcus
Hemophilus Influenzae
Microbiology
Bacteriology
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Injury due to Alkalis causes:
Symbelapharon
4
Retinal detachment
Retinitis
Perforation
Symbelapharon
Ophthalmology
null
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single
Massive transfusion can cause a) Hyperkalemia b) DIC c) Thrombocytopenia d) Hypothermia
Complications of Massive transfusion Massive transfusion cam lead to coagulapathy and metabolic complications Most common cause of death after massive transfusion : Dilutional Coagulopathy or DIC Transfusion of 15-20 units of blood components causes Dilutional thrombocytopenia After massive transfusion initially transient hyperglycemia due to glucose in preservatives leading to insulin release and causing hypoglycemia (MC) Galvimetric method of estimation of blood loss : Blood loss during operation is measured by weighing the swabs after use & subtracting the dry weight plus volume of blood collected in suction or drainage Metabolic complications of Massive transfusion General Fluid overload Hypothermia Impaired oxygen delivery capacity of Hb (decreased 2,3-DPG). Electrolyte Hyperkalemia Hypocalcemia Hypomagnesemia Metabolic alkalosis Metabolic acidosis (rare) Ref: Harrison's 19th edition Pgno :138
4
a,d
b,c
a,c,d
a,b,c,d
Anatomy
General anatomy
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single
Biconcave shape of RBC is useful for all, EXCEPT:
Biconcave shape allows easy folding of RBC on itself when it passes through capillaries. It allows considerable alteration in cell volume. Thus can withstand considerable changes of osmotic pressure and resisit hemolysis. Also Know: In humans, they survive in the circulation for an average of 120 days. The average normal red blood cell count is 5.4 million/L in men and 4.8 million/L in women. The number of red cells is also conveniently expressed as the hematocrit, or the percentage of the blood, by volume, that is occupied by erythrocytes. Each human red blood cell is about 7.5 m in diameter and 2 m thick, and each contains approximately 29 pg of hemoglobin. There are thus about 3 x 10 13 red blood cells and about 900 g of hemoglobin in the circulating blood of an adult man. Ref: Barrett K.E., Barman S.M., Boitano S., Brooks H.L. (2012). Chapter 31. Blood as a Circulatory Fluid & the Dynamics of Blood & Lymph Flow. In K.E. Barrett, S.M. Barman, S. Boitano, H.L. Brooks (Eds), Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 24e
2
Allows considerable alteration in cell volume
Increasing surface area for diffusion
Resisting hemolysis
Passing easily through smaller capillaries
Physiology
null
ac09ba55-5709-43a8-88df-fe2297c17d90
multi
Sweating is Not present in
Heat stroke Exposure to high environmental temperatures can lead to following conditions ? I . Heat fatigue - Performance of a person decreases due to high environmental temperatures. The person gets tired early d/t high temp. 2. Heat cramps - these are painful spasms of voluntary muscles following strenous work in hot conditions, These cramps are caused by loss of water and salt from profuse sweating. 3. Heat syncope (heat exhaustion, heat collapse) - It is a condition of collapse without increase in body temperature, following exposure to hot and humid atmosphere. - On examination,. face is pale, .skin cold, the temperature subnormal - The pt. usually recovers when placed at rest. Death is unusual and may occur d/t hea failure. 4. Heat stroke - (heat hyperpyrexia, sub stroke) - It is due to impairment of body's heat regulating mechanism caused by failure of cutaneous circulation & sweating, following prolonged exposure to hot, humid conditions. - The onset is usually sudden with sudden collapse and loss of consciousness. Predominant symptoms may also be seen (i.e. headache, nausea, vomitting, dizziness, mental confusion, muscle cramps, excessive thirst, excessive desire to micturate) - The skin is dry, hot and flushed with complete absence of sweating - Body temperature rises as high as 43degC (hence k/a hyperpyrexia) when body temp. rises above 42degC vasodilation occurs with decrease in blood volume leading to circulatory collapse and cardiac failure. - Delirium and convulsions may precede death. - Moality rate in this condition is relatively high. - Fatal period varies from few minutes to 3 days.
3
Heat syncope
Heat cramps
Heat stroke
Heat fatigue
Forensic Medicine
null
6c07ea7b-ef89-4cd9-ab60-02b483a53609
single
When taking a reline impression for an upper denture, which is the most common error?
null
4
Failure to remove undercuts
Improperly rounded peripheries
Improper establishment of a post dam area
Changed centric occlusion
Dental
null
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single
Mitral and periglomerular cells are seen in
Ans. (b) Olfactory bulb(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.217)Olfactory bulb has got special synaptic units called olfactory glomeruli where four types of cells are seen namely,#Mitral cells#Tufted cells#Granule cells#Periglomerular cells
2
Medulla
Olfactory bulb
Primary visual cortex
Geniculate body
Physiology
Nervous System
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single
Osteosarcoma commonly affects: September 2005
Ans. A: Metaphysis Metaphysis-common site for osteosarcoma Diachysis- common site for ewing's tumor Epiphysis- common site for osteoclastoma
1
Metaphysis
Diaphysis
Epiphysis
None of the above
Surgery
null
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multi
All are common oral manifestations of HIV except?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Lichen planus Oral manifestations of HIV/AIDSFungal infectionsOral candidiasis (erythematous & pseudo membranous type)HistoplasmosisCryptococcosisViral diseasesHerpes simplexHerpes zosterHPV (warts)CMVHairy leukoplakia & HBVBacterial infectionsPeriodontal disease (linear gingival erythema, necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) and necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis NUP))MAC infectionNeoplastic lesionsKaposi's sarcomaLymphomaOther lesionsSalivary Gland Disease and xerostomiaRecurrent Aphthous Ulcerations (RAU)Angular cheilitis idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
4
Candidiasis
Aphthous ulcers
Hairy leukoplakia
Lichen planus
Pathology
Infectious Disease
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multi
Which of the following is responsible for adhesion of platelets to the vessel wall?
the Von-Willebrand factor is responsible for adhesion of platelets to the vessel wall. “Endothelial injury allows platelets to contact the underlying extracellular matrix; subsequent adhesion occurs through interactions with von Willebrand factor (VWF), which is a product of normal endothelial cells and an essential cofactor for platelet binding to matrix elements."—
1
Von Willebrand factor
Factor IX
Fibrinogen
Fibronectin
Pathology
null
328a48e6-5247-4ec1-b679-8f2ac8fa7e2a
multi
Coracoid process is a ____________ kind of epiphysis -
null
1
Atavistic
Pressure
Traction
Aberrant
Anatomy
null
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single
Long term side effect of glucocorticosteroids:
Ans. B. OsteoporosisGlucocorticosteroid have many side effects like Cushing syndrome hyperglycemia, osteoporosis, delay in wound healing, increase in infection and many other.
2
Hepatotoxicity
Osteoporosis
Precocious puberty
Lupus like syndrome
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
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single
Prussak's space is situated in:
(a) Epitympanum(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 1983)The space of the epitympanum, lying in between the Shrapnell's membrane or pars flaccida and the neck of malleus is known as "PRUSSAK'S SPACE".When the retraction pocket on Pars flaccida grows medially, it goes into this Prussak's space making this the most common site of primary cholesteatoma.
1
Epitympanum
Mesotympanum
Hypotympanum
Ear canal
ENT
Ear
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single
Which is the purpose of adjusting the occlusion in dentures?
Occlusal adjustment of dentures should be done with the premise of obtaining even occlusal contacts with balanced occlusion in order to stabilize the dentures during function.
4
To obtain balanced occlusion.
To stabilize dentures.
To obtain even occlusal contacts.
All of the above.
Dental
null
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multi
Which of the following enzymes is involved in the degradation of the basement membrane?
Matrix metalloproteinases are a family a proteolytic enzymes that degrade components of the extracellular matrix and basement membrane. Ref: Robbin's Basic Pathology 7th Edition, Page 110, 111, 312, 103; Clinical Gynecologic Endocrinology and Infeility By Marc A. Fritz, Leon Speroff, 2010, Page 596.
1
Metalloproteinases
Oxidases
Elastases
Hydroxylases
Biochemistry
null
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multi
In a case controlled study. It is found that the disease is more common in the group taking coffee as compared to the control group. The significance of this is -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Caffeine is associated with occurrence of disease Case-control study does not establish the cause and effect relationship because it can not distinguish between cause and associated factors. o Case-control study can only tell the association between cause and effect.
3
Cause and effect relationship established
Disease median can be calculated
Caffeine is associated with occurrence of disease
Controls will not get the disease
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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The commonest cyst to arise in pancreas after an attack of acute pancreatitis or pancreatic trauma is:March 2004
Ans. C i.e. Pseudocyst
3
Serous cyst
Mucinous cyst
Pseudocyst
Malignant cyst
Surgery
null
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Which is the common amino acid between urea cycle and TCA?
Ans. (a) AsparateRef: Satyanarayan Biochemistry, pg. 339Role of Aspartate in urea cycle:* Aspartate participates in urea cycle for condensation with citrulline to form Argino succinic acid. The reaction is catalyzed by Argino succinic acid synthetase (Asparate provides one out of the two nitrogens of urea, the other nitrogen is contributed by Glutamate).* In the subsequent reaction, Argino succinic acid undergoes a lytic reaction to form Arginine and fumarate. Fumarate forms a link between TCA cycle and urea. Fumarate can be recycled to form oxaloacetate, through intermediate formation of malate that can be transmmated to form aspartate, to get reutilized in the urea cycleLink between TCA and urea cycleRole of Aspartate in TCA cycle* Oxaloacetate, the keto acid obtained from Aspartate by transamination is an intermediate of TCA cycle.* Oxaloacetate can either be utilized in TCA cycle or be channeled to the pathway of gluconeogenesis.* Hence asparatate is a common intermediate of TCA cycle (through oxaloacetate) and urea cycle (directly)
1
Asparate
Alanine
Asparagine
Glutamate
Biochemistry
Proteins and Amino Acids
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Which of the following structures is not at immediate risk of erosion by cholesteatoma ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Base plate of stapes Cholesteatoma has the propey to destroy the bone by viue of the enzymes released by it. Structures immediately at the risk of erosion are : - Long process of incus. Fallopian canal containing facial nerve. Horizontal / lateral semicircular canal
4
Long process of incus
Fallopian canal containing facial nerve
Horizontal/ lateral semicircular canal
Base plate of stapes
ENT
null
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multi
Third nerve palsy causes all except
CN III palsy will cause diplopia not miosis.
2
Ptosis
Miosis
Outward eye movement
Diplopia
Anatomy
null
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multi
Substernal pain is a feature of:
null
3
Tachycardia
Emphysema
Angina pectoris
Thrombi and emboli
Medicine
null
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single
Normal splanchnic blood supply of the liver includes-
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Portal vein * Liver has dual blood supply and receives 20% of its blood supply through hepatic artery (systemic) and 80% through portal vein (splanchnic). Portal vein is formed by union of splenic vein and superior mesenteric veins.* Venous drainage is through hepatic veins into IVC.
1
Portal vein
Splenic artery
Superior mesenteric artery
Inferior mesenteric vein
Anatomy
Abdomen & Pelvis
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single
In prolonged starvation the main energy source of brain is:
STARVE FEED CYCLE Divided into 5 stages: Well-fed state (1–4 hours after food) Early fasting (4–16 hours after food) Fasting (16–48 hours after food) Starvation (2–3 days without food) Prolonged starvation (> 5 days without food).
2
Glucose
Ketone bodies
Fructose
Fatty acids
Biochemistry
null
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single
Which of the following disorder is x-linked recessive ?
Fabry's disease is x-linked recessive. Red are autosomal recessive.
4
Gaucher disease
Neimann Kick disease
Tay Sachs disease
Fabry's disease
Pediatrics
null
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single
Zollinger Ellison syndrome is characterized by all of the following except -
null
4
Post bulbar ulcer
Recurrent duodenal ulcer
Severe diarrhoea
Massive HCL in response to histamine injection
Medicine
null
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multi
National immunization programme, all are involved, EXCEPT:
The vaccines recommended for National immunization programme are BCG, DPT, TT, OPV and measles. Hepatitis B is not recommended in National immunization programme. Ref: O.P. Ghai, 6Th Ed Page 200.
2
TT
Hepatitis B
OPV
Measles
Pediatrics
null
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A 45-year-old woman has experienced worsening arthritis of her hands and feet for the past 15 years. On physical examination, there are marked deformities of the hands and feet, with ulnar deviation of the hands and swan-neck deformities of the fingers. Laboratory studies show an elevated level of rheumatoid factor. CBC shows hemoglobin, 11.6 g/dL; hematocrit, 34.8%; MCV, 87 mm3; platelet count, 268,000/ mm3; and WBC count, 6800/ mm3. There is a normal serum haptoglobin level, serum iron concentration of 20 mg/ dL, total iron-binding capacity of 195 mg/dL, percent saturation of 10.2, and serum ferritin concentration of 317 ng/mL. No fibrin split products are detected. The reticulocyte concentration is 1.1%. What is the most likely mechanism underlying this patient's hematologic abnormalities?
The iron concentration and iron-binding capacity are low; however, in contrast to the finding in anemia of iron deficiency, the serum ferritin level is increased. This increase is typical of anemia of chronic disease. In this case, the chronic disease is rheumatoid arthritis. Underlying chronic inflammatory or neoplastic diseases increases the secretion of cytokines such as interleukin-1, tumor necrosis factor, and interferon-g. These cytokines promote the sequestration of iron in storage compartments and depress erythropoietin production. Autoantibody hemolytic anemias occur in several autoimmune diseases, such as systemic lupus erythematosus, but not usually in patients with rheumatoid arthritis, as in this case. Normal serum haptoglobin rules out intravascular hemolysis; iron is recycled at a rapid rate. Impaired synthesis of b-globin chains gives rise to b-thalassemia, also characterized by hemolysis. Complement lysis is enhanced in paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria, which results from mutations in the PIGA gene. Patients with this disorder have a history of infections. Sequestration of RBCs in the spleen occur when RBC membranes are abnormal, as in hereditary spherocytosis or sickle cell anemia, or RBCs are coated by antibodies, as in autoimmune hemolytic anemias. Metastases are space-occupying lesions (myelophthisic process) that can lead to leukoerythroblastosis, with nucleated RBCs and immature WBCs appearing on the peripheral blood smear.
3
Autoantibodies against RBC membranes
Impaired synthesis of b-globin chains
Inadequate usage of stored iron
Sequestration of RBCs in splenic sinusoids
Pathology
Blood
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True about femoral hernia is -
Answer is 'b' i.e. Pregnancy is common cause Femoral hernia In this hernia the abdominal contents pass through the femoral ring, traverse the femoral canal and come out through the saphenous opening. It is more common in females (But remember that most common hernia in the females is not femoral, but it is indirect inguinal) Femoral hernia is rare in men and nulliparous women but more common in multiparous women due to stretching of the pelvic ligaments. In contrast to inguinal hernia, femoral hernia is rare in infancy and childhood. It is rare before pubey. It is more common on right side It is bilateral in 20% of cases. Among all the types of hernia, femoral hernia is most liable to become strangulated, mainly because of the narrowness of the neck of the sac and the rigidity of the femoral ring. Infact strangulation is the initial presentation of 40% of femoral hernias. About option 'd' Cryptorchidism is associated with indirect inguinal hernias due to patent processus vaginalis.
2
Occurs exclusively in females
Pregnancy is common cause
Doesn't strangulate
In males associated with cryptorchidism
Surgery
null
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multi
Most common association with Acanthosis nigricans ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Obesity Acanthosis nigricans is a brown to black, velvety hyperpigmentation of the skin. It is usually found in body folds, such as posterior & lateral folds of neck, axilla, groin, umblicus, forehead. It typically occurs in individuals younger than 40 years of age. Histopathologically papillomatosis is characteristically seen; however, there is no hypermelanosis and there is only mild acanthosis, if present. It is associated with : Obesity (most common) Endocrinopathies --> Hypothyroidism, hypehyroidism, insuline resistance diabetes, Cushing's disease, PCOD, Bloom syndrome. Internal malignancy --> Gastric adenocarcinoma.
3
Hypeension
DM
Obesity
Hypothyroidism
Skin
null
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single
Delirium is seen in which of the following poisonings
A i.e. Dhatura; B i.e. Lead; C i.e. Opioid - The Deliriant poisons are - 'Hy - AB - CD' i.e. Hyoscyamus, Atropa Belladona, Cannabis, DhaturaQ - Opium & chronic Lead poisoningQ also causes delirium
4
Dhatura
Lead
Opioid
All
Forensic Medicine
null
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multi
A 74-year-old woman has noted increasing size and number of darker brown patches on the dorsum of each hand for the past 15 years. They do not change with sun exposure, are nonpruritic, and non-tender. On examination, these 0.5- to 1-cm lightly pigmented lesions are flat. Which of the following is the most likely microscopic finding in these lesions?
Unlike a freckle that darkens upon light exposure, lentigo (pleural:lentigenes) does not. There is a focal increase in melanocytes of the basal layer, along with thinning of epidermis and elongation of rete ridges. Lentigines can occur at any age; those in older persons may be termed senile lentigines or age spots. A nevus typically forms a nodule and likely appears much earlier in life. Loss of melanin is termed vitiligo and is a separate process from melanocyte hyperplasia. A collection of mast cells can produce urticaria pigmentosa, which often has a light brown appearance, but pruritus is common. Some superficial fungal infections (black piedra) may be pigmented, but they typically do not persist for years.
1
Basal melanocytic hyperplasia
Dermal nevus cells
Loss of melanin in surrounding skin
Mast cell proliferation
Pathology
Skin
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single
Pericardial space is present between
Pericardial space (pericardial cavity) lies between parietal serous pericardium and visceral serous pericardium.
1
Parietal and visceral pericardium
Endocardium and pericardium
Epicardium and pericardium
Endocardium and epicardium
Anatomy
null
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single
Danazol is used in all except :
null
1
Hirsutism
Endometriosis
Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
Fibroid
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
9131f053-9731-4eed-a834-59ec4f4c4d15
multi
Which is NOT a feature of polymyositis?
Answer is B (Gottron's rash) : Gottron's rash is a feature of dermatomyositis and is characterized by erythema of knuckles witlz raised violaceous scaly eruptions. No rash is seen in patients of polymnyositis Polymyositis is essentially a diagnosis of exclusion Polymyositis is a subacute inflammatory myopathy affecting adults and rarely children who do not have I. Rash) Involvement of extraocular or fascial muscles) Family history of neuromuscular disease History of exposure to myotoxic drugs or toxins Endocrinopathy Neurogenic disease Muscular dystrophy Biochemical muscle disorder. Dermatomyositis : is a distinctive entitiy identified by a characteristic rash, accompanying or more often preceding muscles weakness.
2
Pharyngeal muscle involvement
Gottron's rash
Proximal muscle involvement
Pain in limbs
Medicine
null
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single
Transmission of R factor is by -
Conjugation Bacterial conjugation is the transfer of genetic material between bacteria through direct cell to cell contact or through a bridge- like the connection between two cells. Conjugation is a process whereby a donor (male) bacterium makes physical contact with a recipient (female) bacterium. Donor status is determined by the presence of plasmid. This plasmid codes for specialized fimbria (sex pilus) and for self-transfer. Sex pilus (conjugation tube) helps in the transfer of genetic material from male bacterium to female bacterium. The plasmid is known as transfer factor (sex factor or fertility factor). The plasmid may be R factor, which codes for transferrable multiple drug resistance. The DNA of the plasmid replicates during transfer so that each bacterium receives a copy → Recipient becomes a donor and the donor retains its donor status.
1
Conjugation
Transduction
Transformation
Lysogenic conversion
Microbiology
null
e5c9f88f-3af3-42ca-a6c7-f4a995a7caf0
single
Boutonniere deformity involves:
Boutonniere deformity involves: Flexion at PIP and extention at DIP joint seen in RA Other deformities in RA- Swan-neck deformity Z-deformity of thumb Ulnar detion of fingers
3
Flexion at PIP and DIP joint
Extention at PIP and DIP joint
Flexion at PIP and extention at DIP joint
Extention at PIP and flexion at DIP joint
Orthopaedics
Joint Disorders
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Infective stage for mosquito in case of Plasmodium vivax is:
Gametocyte
1
Gametocyte
Sporozites
Tropozoites
Merozoites
Microbiology
null
29524a4b-6be9-4a26-812c-5d9396424156
single
Rhinitiss sicca involves
Rhinitis sicca is a crust-forming disease seen in patients who work in hot, dry and dusty surroundings, e.g. bakers, iron- and goldsmiths.Condition is confined to the anterior third of nose paicularly of the nasal septum. Here, the ciliated columnar epithelium undergoes squamous metaplasia with atrophy of seromucinous glands. Crusts form on the anterior pa of septum and their removal causes ulceration and epistaxis, and may lead to septal perforation.Dhingra 6e pg: 155
2
Anterior nares
Septum
Posterior wall
Lateral wall
ENT
Nose and paranasal sinuses
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multi
Most abundant and common complement component for both the pathways is:
C3
1
C3
C5
Clq
C8
Pathology
null
ec178a6c-85a6-4779-bc02-2177efacf99f
multi
Cat is an agent for transmission of the following disease of man -
Cat and other felines- definitive host Human - intermediate host (Refer pgno:64 baveja 3 rd edition)
3
Isospora hominis
Fasciola hepatica
Toxoplasma gondii
Chilomastrix mensili
Microbiology
parasitology
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single
Screening of neonatal thyroid disease is done by
Since the neonates are asymptomatic at bih all newborns are screened for neonatal hypothyroidism. TSH is estimated either in cord blood at the time of bih (preferred) or blood obtained from heel prick after 2 days of bih.(Refer: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, SAE, 1st edition, pg no. 2669 - 2773)
3
T4
T3
TSH
TPO antibodies
Pediatrics
All India exam
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single
The roof of the olfactory region is formed by ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cribriform plate of ethmoid The olfactory mucosa lines the upper one-third of nasal cavity including the roof formed by cribriform plate and the medial and lateral walls up to the level of superior concha (turbinate).
2
Nasal bone
Cribriform plate of ethmoid
Sphenoid
Temporal bone
Anatomy
null
24a5809c-da4e-4589-a1a5-dfec6afcd20d
single
The most appropriate circuit for ventilating a spontaneously breathing infant -
Ayre&;s T piece is used in infants. The patient inspires fresh gas from the reservoir tube,expires into the reservoir tube. Advantages are they are inexpensive,compact,no valves and low dead space
1
Jackson Rees modification of Ayre's T piece
Mapleson A or Magill's circuit
Mapleson C or water's to & fro canister
Bain's circuit
Anaesthesia
Anaesthetic equipments
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single
Investigation of choice in postcoital bleeding in a 60 years old lady is :
Ans. is b i.e. Colposcopy and biopsy investigation of choice in post-coital bleeding in a 60 years old lady (which suggests carcinoma cervix) is Colposcopy and Biopsy. The aim of Colposcopy is : - to confirm the diagnosis - to identify the extent of lesion - it allows conservative treatment in case of precancerous lesions. Pap smear is not the investigation of choice, as it is a screening procedure. If pap smear is negative in this case (In postmenopausal females, where there are less metaplastic changes at squamo columnar junction) we still have to confirm by Colposcopy. Cone biopsy is a destructive method and is advised only if diagnosis cannot be confirmed by colposcopy or SCJ is not visualised.
2
Pap smear
Colposcopy and biopsy
Pelvic ultrasound
Cone excision of cervix
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
Primary pleural tumor is ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Mesothelioma & 'd' i.e., Fibroma The pleura may be involved by primary or secondary tumors. Primary tumors Benign - Solitary fibrous tumor (benign fibrous mesothelioma or benign mesothelioma or pleural fibroma). Malignant - Malignant mesothelioma. Secondary tumors More common than primary tumors. Most common primary sites are lung and breast. Pleural fibroma (Benign fibrous mesothelioma) This is the primary benign lesion of pleura. The tumor is often attached to the pleural surface by a pedicle. These tumor do not usually produce a pleural effusion and have no relationship to asbestos exposure (in contrast to malignant mesothelioma). They consist of dense fibrous tissue with occasional cysts filled with viscid fluid. Microscopically, the tumors show whorls of reticulin and collegen fibers among which are interspersed spindle cells resembling fibroblasts. The tumor cells are CD 34 (+)ve and keratin negative by immunostaining. This feature can be diagnostically useful in distinguishing these lesions from malignant mesothelomas which is CD34 (-)ve and keratin positive.
1
Mesothelioma
Myxoma
Lipoma
Fibroma
Pathology
null
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single
Epalrestat is a
Epalrestat is analdose reductase inhibitor. There by it reduces the formation of sorbitol from glucose. Sorbitol acts like a tissue toxin. "Long-term treatment with epalrestat is well tolerated and can effectively delay the progression of diabetic neuropathy and ameliorate the associated symptoms of the disease, paicularly in subjects with good glycemic control and limited microangiopathy." Epalrestat is a drug that we use in diabetic but it is not a antidiabetic drug (i.e. it does not reduce the blood sugar level).
4
Antihypeensive drug
Antidiabetic drug
Anti tubercular drug
None of the above
Anatomy
All India exam
41ff3cbd-e0a1-47cc-ac7a-f1cca5fdef54
multi
Mechanism of action of cholera toxin is
CHOLERA ENTEROTOXIN Light (L) toxin : Binds with ganglioside in epithelial cell membrane Heavy(H) toxin : Activates Adenyl cyclase in Epithelial cell wall which increase camp, leading to outpouring of isotonic fluid in lumen of intestine Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 253
3
Ganglioside
Adenyl cyclase
Both 1 and 2
Exotoxin
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
93fbd343-6ce9-4778-8c1f-3aaa87078ada
multi
Tissue elevation of which of the following cause vasoconstriction :
Ans. D. Ca2+Vascular Control by lons and Other Chemical Factors Guyton 12th(SAE)/269An increase in calcium ion concentration causes vasoconstriction.An increase in potassium ion concentration,.within the physiological range, causes vasodilation.An increase in magnesium ion concentration causes powerful vasodilation.An increase in hydrogen ion concentration (decrease in pH) causes dilation of the aerioles.Anions that have significant effects on blood vessels are acetate and citrate.An Increase in carbon dioxide concentration causes moderate vasodilation in most tissues but marked vasodilation in the brain.
4
Na+
K+
Mg
Ca2+
Physiology
null
fc9a4e65-d6d3-454b-8fd8-eb8fa49cd5b0
single
Vital statistics in a population include:-
Population statistics Vital statistics Population size Sex ratio Density of population Dependency ratio Bih rate, death rate Natural growth rate Life expectancy at bih Moality rates Feility rates
3
Sex ratio
Age composition
Bih rate
Dependency ratio
Social & Preventive Medicine
Definition & Concepts
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single
A 26yr old pregnant mother who had previous twin delivery visits ANC OPD for routine check up she is sure of her dates with 36 wks pay what is the obstetric score
REF : DUTTA 9TH ED
2
g3p1
g2p1
G2P2
G3P2
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
All India exam
6ab6f443-ebe0-4dd5-9e7d-e4266a376fd9
single
Wrong statement is –
Koilonychia is seen in iron deficiency anemia (not in megaloblastic anemia). Mees line is seen in Arsenic poisoning. Pterygium is diagnostic for lichen planus. Psoriasis can cause onycholysis
4
Mees line in arsenic poisoning
Pterygium of nails in Lichen planus
Onycholysis in Psoriasis
Koilonychia in Megaloblastic Anemia (B12 def)
Dental
null
1753717c-e558-473b-88aa-adb878c40fdf
multi
The MOST appropriate time for self-examination of breast in relation to menstraution in a pre-menopausal woman is?
Breast self-examination is to be performed by all women above 18 years throughout their life. It should be performed every month at the same time of menstrual cycle. For pre-menopausal women: The best time is right after the menstrual cycle ends (7-10 day; after menstrual cycle stas) as at this time the breasts are less swollen and less tender a; estrogen levels are low. For post-menopausal women: BSE at any specific date can be selected for each month For women on H: BSE to be done after finishing each cycle of H For women on OCP: BSE should be performed with the sta of new pill pack each month
1
A week after menstruation stas
Before ovulation
During menstruation
A day after menstruation ends
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
94741fb9-e52a-42c1-8df5-59f338e300b9
single
True about anatomy of right ventricle
Forms the major poion of the anterior surface of the hea Right ventricle is divided into 2 pas: an inflow poion named "the sinus" and an outflow poion named "the conus" separated by the crista supraventricularis. As opposed to the normal left ventricle, the right ventricle is highly trabeculated the right ventricle is triangular when viewed longitudinally and is crescent shaped when viewed transversally Ref - BDC 6th edition vol 1 pg 256
2
Situated posteriorly
More prominent trabeculation
Crista supraventricularis separate tricuspid valve & pulmonary valve
Ellipsoidal in shape
Anatomy
Thorax
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multi
Ratio of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim in cotrimoxazole tablet is:-
COTRIMOXAZOLE This is a fixed dose combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim in a ratio of 5:1. Due to different bioavailability (more for sulfamethoxazole), plasma concentration of the two drugs attained is 20:1 (in vivo), which is the best bactericidal concentration required. The bactericidal activity is due to sequential blockade at two steps in the DNA synthesis (sulfamethoxazole inhibits folate synthase and trimethoprim inhibits DHFRase). It is the drug of choice for pneumocystosis, nocardiosis and infections caused by Burkholderia cepacia.
1
5:01
1:05
1:01
5:05
Pharmacology
Antimetabolites and Quinolones
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Subacute bacterial endocarditis is caused by
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1
Streptococcus viridans
Haemolytic streptococci
Staphylococcus aureus
Nisseria
Microbiology
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Which is an example of disability limitation
Disability: Any restriction or lack of ability to perform an activity in the manner or within the range considered normal for human being. Disability Limitation: It is mode of intervention when patient repos late in the pathogenesis phase. The objective of this intervention is to prevent or halt the transition at' the disease process from impairment to handicap. Sequence of events leading to disability and handicap have been stated as follows Disease -> Impairment -> disability --> handicap In the question: Reducing occurrence of polio by immunization = Specific protection Arranging for schooling of child suffering from PPRP and providing calipers for waIking -> Rehabilitation. Resting affected limbs in neutral position = Disability limitation.
1
Resting the affected limb in neutral position
Arranging for schooling of a child suffering from PPRP
Reducing occurrence by polio immunisation
Providing calipers for walking
Surgery
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The function of minor connector is
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1
Connects major connector to all components of the RPD
Prevents gingival displacement of the RPD
Allows a single path of placement of the RPD
It is that unit of RPD to which all other parts are directly or indirectly attached
Dental
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Type B gastritis is
Type B gastritis mainly involves the region of antral mucosa (hence antral predominant not body predominant.) and is more common. It is also called hypersecretory gastritis due to excessive secretion of acid, commonly due to infection with H. pylori. These patients may have associated peptic ulcer. Unlike Type A gastritis, this form of gastritis has no autoimmune basis nor has an association with other autoimmune diseases. Type A is body predominant. Type AB gastritis effects the mucosal region of A as well as B types. This is the most common gastritis in all age groups. It is also called environmental gastritis, mixed gastritis, chronic atrophic gastritis. TEXTBOOK OF PATHOLOGY HARSH MOHAN 6TH EDITION PAGE NO:547
2
Body predominant
H. pylori associated
Autoimmune gastritis
Environmental gastritis
Pathology
G.I.T
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An ABG analysis shows : pH 7.2, raised pCO2, decreased HCO3; diagnosis is :
Answer is C (Respiratory and metabolic acidosis) The acid base disorder is therefore both respiratory and metabolic acidosis. There is acidosis (pH < 7.35). Raised PCO2 (acidosis) indicates that change in CO2 is in keeping with change in pH. The respiratory component is therefore primary. Decreased HCO3 (acidosis) indicates that change in HCO3 is also primary. The acid base disorder is therefore both respiratory and metabolic acidosis.
3
Respiratory acidosis
Compensated metabolic acidosis
Respiratory and metabolic acidosis
Respiratory alkalosis
Medicine
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Storage temperature for vaccine is: A
+2degC to 8degC
3
--4degC to 0degC
0degC to 4degC
+2degC to 8degC
+4degC to 12degC
Social & Preventive Medicine
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Retinoblastoma gene is located on chromosome -
Harshmohan textbook of pathology 7th edition RB gene is located on long arm chromosome 13. This is the first ever tumor suppressor gene identified and this has been amply studied..
3
6
9
13
21
Pathology
General pathology
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All are associated with AIDS EXCEPT:
ANSWER: (B) HypogammaglobulinemiaREF: Harrisons 18th ed chapter 189Even though HIV causes immune suppression, it causes hypergammaglobulinemia rather than hypogammglobulinemiaIncreased p24 antibody: basis for detection in window period.T cell anergy is commonly seen in HIVAbnormal response of T cells to mitogens is a test used in HIV
2
Increased p 24 Ab
Hypogammaglobulinemia
Abnormal mitogen assay
Anergy
Medicine
Virology
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Hand deformity presennting as hyper-extension at the metcarpo phalaogeal joint and flexion at inter-phalanngeal joint, occurs due to paralysed
Interossei and lumbricalsflexes MCP (metacarpophallangeal joint) and extend IP (interphallangeal joint). Injury to interossei and lumbricals leads toclaw hand (extended MCP and flexed IP)
3
Flexor digitorum profundus
Lumbricals
Lumbricals and interossei
Extensor digitorum
Anatomy
NEET Jan 2020
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Essential pentosuria is due to defect in
It is an inborn error of metabolism.In the pathway, L-xylulose is conveed to D-xylulose by two enzymes, xylitol dehydrogenase, and xylulose reductase.Absence of any of these enzymes leads to pentosuria.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 135
4
HMP pathway
Glycolysis
Gluconeogenesis
Uronic acid pathway
Biochemistry
Metabolism of carbohydrate
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Anti retro viral drug causing urinary stones:
Ans: c (Indinavir) Ref: Harrison, 16th ed, p. 1127; 17th ed, p. 1192Indinavir is the antiretroviral drug which causes urinary stones.Classification of antiretro viral drugNucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI)* Zalcitabine* Didanosine* Lamivudine* Zidovudine* Stavudine* Abacavir* EmtricitabineProtease inhibitors* Indinavir* Saquinavir* Ritonavir* Nelfinavir* LopinavirFusion inhibitorsEnliiviritideNon nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI)* Nevirapine* Efavirenz* DelavirdineNucleotide analogueTenefovirAdefbvirSide effects of antiretroviral drugsNRTIPeripheral neuropathy-Stavudine> Zalcitabine> DidanosinePancreatitis-Didanosine> Zalcitabine> StavudineHepatic steatosisAnaemia / neutropeniaProtease InhibitorsGastro intestinal intoleranceFat redistributionHyperlipidaemiaInsulin resistanceIndinavir-Renal stones, crystalluria, hyperbilirubinaemiaRitonavir-Perioral paraesthesiaMyopathyZalcitabine-mouth ulcersZidovudine-nail pigmentationAbacavir-Hypersensitivity.NNRTIRashSteven Johnson syndromeEfavirenz-vivid dreamsNevirapine-hepatitisFusion inhibitors-hypersensitivity.
3
Zidovudine
Lamivudine
Indinavir
Nelfinavir
Medicine
Infection
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Poor prognostic factor of non Hodgkin's lymphoma is -
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4
Age > 60 years
Weight loss > 10%
Night sweats with loss of weight
All of the above
Medicine
null
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multi
Lutembacher syndrome includes all the following except
Lutembacher syndrome is defined as a combination of mitral stenosis and a left-to-right shunt at the atrial levelTypically, the left-to-right shunt is an atrial septal defect (ASD) of the ostium secundum varietyBoth these defects, ASD, and mitral stenosis can be either congenital or acquired.(Refer: OP Ghai's Textbook of Pediatrics, 8th edition, pg no. 401)
3
Mitral stenosis
ASD
VSD
Left to right shunt
Pediatrics
All India exam
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