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Commonest type of Retinal detachment?
|
Ans. a (Rhegmatogenous). (Ref Ophthalmology by Basak 4th/ 316; Kanski's 6th/349; Parson's 20th/311).The term rhegmatogenous is derived from the Greek word rhegma, which means a discontinuity or a break. A rhegmatogenous retinal detachment (RRD) occurs when a tear in the retina leads to fluid accumulation with a separation of the neurosensory retina from the underlying RPE; this is the most common type of retinal detachment.Types of Retinal detachments TypeDefinitionCauses1.RhegmatogenousFull thickness defect or hole in the retina with subretinal Fluid accumulation# Trauma (blunt)# Spontaneous# Myopia (high)# ICCE# Aphakia/Pseudophakia# Age-related retinoschisis# Vitreoretinal tufts and Meridional folds# Family history of RD2.Traction detachmentCaused by scar tissue pulling on the retina# Proliferative diabetic retinopathy# ROP# Sickle cell retinopathy ["sea-fan" retina)# Penetrating posterior segment trauma3.Exudative (serous) detachmentAs a result of inflammatory diseases or sometimes hypertension# Choroidal tumor# Exophytic retinoblastoma# Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome# Posterior scleritis# Infectious (syphilis, TB, CMV, Toxoplasmosis)# Subretinal vascularisation# Collagen vascular diseases# Coats disease# Central serous chorioretinopathy# Uveal effusion syndrome# Renal diseases# Severe hypertension/ eclampsia/ preeclampsiaRx of Rhegmatous RD (essentially surgical & immediate)A. Sealing the retinal breaks (cryoretinopexy/diathermy/Laser)B. Scleral bucklingC. Subretinal fluid drainageD. ntravitreal injections (air or Ringer's solution)E. Vitrectomy
| 1 |
Rhegmatogenous
|
Choroidal hemorrhage
|
Exudative
|
Tractional
|
Ophthalmology
|
Retina
|
847ec916-2970-4ff1-abf9-0592b3f78662
|
single
|
Vaginal Ph in women of the reproductive age group is within which of the following range?
|
The healthy vagina of a woman of child-bearing age is acidic, with a pH normally ranging between 3.8 and 4.5. This is due to the degradation of glycogen to the lactic acid by enzymes secreted by the Doderlein's bacillus. This is a normal commensal of the vagina. The acidity retards the growth of many strains of dangerous microbes.
| 1 |
4-4.5
|
7-Jun
|
8-Jul
|
3-Jan
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
60663ee8-9841-4e90-b231-9d4ad28b893c
|
single
|
Screening test for sclerodema
|
Answer- A. Anti-nuclear antibodyANA is the screening method of choice for systemic rheumatic disease such as systemic lupus erythyematous (SLE), mixed connective tissue disease, Sjogren syndrome, scleroderma, CREST syndrome, rheumatoid ahritis, polymyositis, dermatomyositis.
| 1 |
Anti-nuclear antibody
|
Ul-Ribonucleoprotein antibody
|
Anti- L.K.M. antibody
|
Anti- topoisomerase antibody
|
Medicine
| null |
d6bbfa64-ffe7-4cbe-b56b-0f97dc78cf50
|
single
|
A child was brought by his mother complaining nocturnal perianal pruritus and presence of adult worms in the stool. Which of the following is the most common intestinal infection in school-age children worldwide?
|
Enterobius vermicularis, the pinworm, is a common cause of intestinal infections worldwide, with maximal prevalence in school-age children. Enterobiasis is transmitted person-to-person ingestion of eggs after contact with the hands or perianal region of an infected individual, food or fomites that have been contaminated by an infected individual, or infected bedding or clothing. Auto-infection also occurs. Ref: Rosenthal P.J. (2013). Chapter 35. Protozoal & Helminthic Infections. In M.A. Papadakis, S.J. McPhee, M.W. Rabow, T.G. Berger (Eds), CURRENT Medical Diagnosis & Treatment 2014.
| 2 |
Plasmodium vivax
|
Enterobius vermicularis
|
Entamoeba histolytica
|
Strongyloides stercoralis
|
Microbiology
| null |
b3910578-dfff-41ed-8d70-e02cfff2db58
|
single
|
Sociology-
|
sociology ; study of human relationships and behaviour for a better understanding of the pattern of human life. it also concerned with the effects on the individual of the ways in which other individuals think and act ref ;(page no;670)23rd edition of PARK's textbook of Preventive and Social medicine
| 3 |
Study of human relationship
|
Study of behaviour
|
Both
|
None
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Social science, Mental health & Genetics
|
cbd14a48-a8dd-4d96-a06b-11544946982d
|
multi
|
Basophilic stippling is due to
|
(C) (5'- nucleotides deficiency) (880-H 18(tm))Lead intoxication is accompanied by an acquired deficiency of erythrocyte pryimidine-specific, 5'-nucleotidase.Genetically determined deficiency of this enzyme is associated with chronic hemolysis, marked basophilic stippling of erythrocytes on stained blood films, and unique intraerythrocytic accumulations of pyrimidine-containing nucleotides.Basophilic stippling aka Punctatebasophilia refers to an observation found when observing a blood smear in which erythrocytes display small dots at the periphery. These dots are the visualization of ribosomes and can often be found in the peripheral blood smear, even in some normal individuals.Pyrimidine 5'- nucleotides (P 5 N) deficiency- P5N is a key enzyme in the catabolism of nucleotides arising from the degradation of nucleic acids that takes place in the final stages of erythroid cell maturation. How exactly its deficiency causes Hemolytic anemia is not well understood; but a highly distinctive features of this condition is a morphologicabnormality of the red cells known as basophilic stipplingHemolytic anemia caused by lead poisoning is characterized by basophilic stippling. It is infact a phenocopy of that seen in P5N deficiency, suggesting it is mediated at least in part by lead inhibiting then enzymeCauses of Basophilic Stippling in blood smear1. Thalassemias2. Hemoglobin s S - disease3. Hemoglobin s C disease4. Hemoglobin s E disease5. Iron deficiency6. Unstable hemoglobin s / Myelodysplasia7. Lead poisoning* Basophilic leucocytoses is seen in CML *
| 3 |
Ala synthetase deficiency
|
Ferrochelatase deficiency
|
5' nucleotidase deficiency
|
Ala dehdrogenase deficiency
|
Biochemistry
|
Miscellaneous (Bio-Chemistry)
|
2e221bd1-8592-4f12-8123-11dc83170753
|
single
|
Which of the following is not true regarding wilson's disease
|
KF ring is present in upto 99 % of cases.
ATP 7B mutation results in defective biliary copper excretion into bile as copper can't be incorporated into apoceruloplasmin.
Thus copper accumulates in excess amounts in liver and brain.
The copper accumulation in descemets membrane of cornea is manifested as KF rings, in the eye.
| 4 |
ATP7B mutation leading to impairment in copper metabolism
|
Most specific screening test is Urinary excretion of copper
|
Gold standard test is liver biopsy
|
KF ring is present in upto 30% cases
|
Biochemistry
| null |
b9eb5bea-46e4-4c67-a294-3eaac8b3716e
|
multi
|
Clinical scenario with bag of worms
|
Answer- A. VaricoceleA varicocele is a varicose (touous) dilatation of the vein draining the testis.C/FOn palpation, testicules may feels like a bag of wormsvaricocele is painless and the only complaint of the patient is swelling.
| 1 |
Varicocele
|
Hydrocele
|
Torsion of testis
|
Congenital hernia
|
Surgery
| null |
c011736e-287d-437e-ba75-97fbed053ece
|
single
|
One of the following is an example of painless midline swelling :
|
Ans is 'b' ie Thyroglossal cyst. Midline swelling of neck from above downwardsLudwig's anginaEnlarged submental lymph nodesSublingual dermoidLipoma in submental regionThyroglossal cyst Subhyoid bursitisGoitre Lipoma & enlarged lymph nodes in the suprasternal space of bumsRetrosternal goiterThymic swelling(A dermoid cyst may occur anywhere in the midline)
| 2 |
Branchial cyst
|
Thyroglossal cyst
|
Cystic hygroma
|
Carotid body tumour
|
Surgery
|
Miscellaneous (Neck)
|
b5164f42-b322-40b6-afc0-4ff2a8c5adc6
|
single
|
At 9 weeks, approximate CRL in mm of a fetus would be:
|
Crown rump length(CRL) is measured from the top of the head to the bottom of buttocks excluding limbs.CRL between 9 and 11 weeks is the most accurate method of dating.Error is about +/- 5 days.CRL in cm +6.5 gives a rough estimate of gestational age in weeks.Uesful prior to amniocentesis and chorion sampling and to confirm later intrauterine growth restriction. Refer page no 476 of Text book of obstetrics sheila balakrishnan 2 nd edition.
| 2 |
8 mm
|
2.5 mm
|
9 mm
|
5 mm
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
Diagnosis in obstetrics
|
b446aa57-c6ca-4a07-836b-7cefbcb696a1
|
single
|
Oral contraceptive Pill (OCP) failure is seen with all except:
|
Drugs leading to OCP failure are: Rifampicin Tetracyclines Phenytoin Phenobarbitone Antifungals Cephalosporin Ritonavir for HIV (interferes with absorptionn of OCP) Ref: online resources (ncb.nlm.nih.gov)
| 3 |
Rifampicin
|
Phenobarbitone
|
Valproate
|
Phenytoin
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
Contraception
|
58c25cbf-aa09-474e-a62c-7575a42c9e1b
|
multi
|
Cholesterol from the liver is transpoed to the peripheral tissue mainly by:
|
Low-density lipoprotein/ LDLIt is one of the five major groups of lipoproteins, which in order of size, largest to smallest, are chylomicrons, VLDL, IDL, LDL, and HDL, that enable transpo of multiple different fat molecules, as well as cholesterol, within the water around cells and within the water-based bloodstream.LDL is often informally called bad cholesterol, (as opposed to HDL paicles, which are frequently referred to as good cholesterol or healthy cholesterol).
| 2 |
HDL
|
LDL
|
VLDL
|
Chylomicrons
|
Biochemistry
| null |
243eca1a-62cc-4ff3-9afc-d022ad7fbf00
|
single
|
Metabolism of a drug primarily results in
|
Ref-Katzung 10/e p50 After metabolism most of the drugs become inactive and their excreted through the kidney. Lipids soluble drugs wil be reabsprbed whereas water soluble drugs are easily excreted.thus, metabolism of drugs helps in the conversion of liquid soluble drugs to water soluble metabolites
| 3 |
Activation of the active drug
|
Conversion of prodruv to active metabolite
|
Conversion of lipid soluble drugs to water soluble metabolites
|
Conversion of water soluble drugs to lipid solible metabolites
|
Anatomy
|
Other topics and Adverse effects
|
2fcd6367-0133-468f-b0ab-b7e2d1b74920
|
single
|
A 43-year-old 190 cm man post a flight to Chennai presents with left-sided chest discomfort and dyspnea. On chest X-ray, there is a small area devoid of lung markings in the apex of the left lung. Diagnosis is?
|
Ans. A Spontaneous pneumothoraxRef: CMDT 2019 pg. 325Spontaneous pneumothorax occurs from a rupture of an apical pleural bleb and is associated with tall, young males and is also seen with aeroplane ascent.
| 1 |
Spontaneous pneumothorax
|
Myocardial infarction
|
Acute cor pulmonale
|
Aortic dissection
|
Physiology
|
Respiratory System
|
d3de2a9b-30af-4952-ad68-ccad0e0c8f6a
|
multi
|
Which of the following properties make pyridostigmine different from neostigmine ?
|
Though less potent than Neostigmine, Pyridostigmine has longer duration of action (3 to 6 hrs)
Duration of action of neostigmine is 0.5 to 2 hrs.
| 2 |
It is more potent
|
It is longer acting
|
It produces less muscarinic side effects
|
It does not have any direct action on NM receptors
|
Pharmacology
| null |
36f7a2e9-88b9-4ddb-bb97-b31926d59856
|
single
|
Drug of choice for bacterial vaginosis is :
| null | 1 |
Metronidazole
|
Ampicillin
|
Ciprofloxacin
|
Fluconazole
|
Pharmacology
| null |
1e24f37c-09ad-4d04-9371-b8222cc4f86b
|
single
|
Aniseikonia is-
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Difference in the size of image formed by the two eyes * Anisoeikonia is defined as a condition wherein the images projected on the visual cortex from the two retinae are abnormally unequal in size or shape. Causes may be : -i) Optical aniseikonia: - When the difference between refractive error of two eyes is of high degree, the image of an object may be of different size or shape in two eyes. So the defect is at refractive structures level.ii) Retinal aniseikonia: - Defect is at retinal level and occurs due to displacement of retinal elements towards the nodal point in one eye due to stretching or edema of the retina.iii) Cortical aniseikonia: - Defect is at higher central level. There is asymmetrical simultaneous perception inspite of equal size of images formed on the two retinae.
| 4 |
Difference in the axial length of the eyeballs
|
Difference in the size of corneas
|
Difference in the size of pupils
|
Difference in the size of image formed by the two eyes
|
Ophthalmology
|
Errors of Refraction
|
c6e3a936-3b81-4d76-b263-d420b7e52646
|
multi
|
Middle meningeal aery passes through which foramen?
|
The middle meningeal aery is a branch of the first pa of the maxillary aery, given off in the infratemporal fossa. In infratemporal fossa, the aery runs upwards and medially deep to the lateral pterygoid muscle and superficial to the sphenomandibular ligament. Here it passes through a loop formed by the two roots of the auriculotemporal nerve. It enters the middle cranial fossa through foramen spinosum. Notes: Middle meningeal aery is impoant to the surgeon because this aery is the commonest source of extradural hemorrhage. Ref BDC volume 3,6th edition pg 201
| 2 |
Foramen rotundum
|
Foramen spinosum
|
Foramen ovale
|
Jugular foramen
|
Anatomy
|
Head and neck
|
155ea118-bec3-410a-a98d-6df17a9769cd
|
single
|
Denominator in General fertility rate is?
|
ANSWER: (B) Women in reproductive age group in a given yearREF: Parks textbook 20th edition page419Repeat from December 2008General fertility rate: Number of live births per 1000 women in reproductive age group in a given yearGeneral marital fertility rate: Number of live births per 1000 married women in reproductive age group in a given yearAge specific fertility rate: Number of live births in a year to 1000 women in any specified age groupAge specific marital fertility rate: Number of live births in a year to 1000 married women in any specified age group
| 2 |
Married women in reproductive age group in a given year
|
Women in reproductive age group in a given year
|
Married women in any specified age group
|
Women in any specified age group
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Demography
|
dd2304d5-06e2-4298-ab2d-2467ecf9c6fb
|
single
|
A patient presented in emergency with tachycardia, hyperthermia, bronchial dilatation and constipation. The person is likely to be suffering from overdose of:
|
Ans. (A) Atropine(Ref: Modi's Medical jurisprudence and Toxicology. 23rd, 2005/92, 403, 429-430, Goodman and Gilman 12/e p234-235)These are the characteristic features of anti-cholinergic overdose.
| 1 |
Atropine
|
Organophosphorus compound
|
Mushroom
|
Paracetamol
|
Pharmacology
|
A.N.S.
|
80f40f82-c1f6-4565-ab80-2ced8d14f0cc
|
single
|
A 58-year-old woman presents with an irregular nodularity that has developed in her right breast over the past 3 months. Mammography demonstrates irregular densities in both breasts. A needle biopsy of one breast lesion is shown. An excisional biopsy of the contralateral breast shows similar histology. Which of the following is the most likely pathologic diagnosis?
|
Lobular carcinoma in situ arises in the terminal duct lobular unit. Malignant cells appear as solid clusters that pack and distend the terminal ducts but not to the extent of ductal carcinoma in situ. The lesion does not usually incite the dense fibrosis and chronic inflammation so characteristic of intraductal carcinoma in situ and is, therefore, less likely to cause a detectable mass. It is not uncommon for lobular carcinoma in situ to be an "incidental" finding in a biopsy that was prompted by benign changes. As with intraductal carcinoma in situ, 20% to 30% of women with lobular carcinoma in situ receiving no further treatment after biopsy will develop invasive cancer within 20 years of diagnosis. However, about half of these invasive cancers will arise in the contralateral breast and may be either lobular or ductal cancers. Thus, lobular carcinoma in situ, more than ductal carcinoma in situ, serves as a marker for an enhanced risk of subsequent invasive cancer in both breasts. The histologic appearance is not consistent with any of the other choices.Diagnosis: Lobular carcinoma in situ
| 2 |
Colloid carcinoma
|
Lobular carcinoma in situ
|
Malignant phyllodes tumor
|
Medullary carcinoma
|
Pathology
|
Breast
|
5d4c0357-a1d0-4e16-a8e7-bebbc006aca9
|
multi
|
The following muscle is an opener of the glottis -
|
Opener (abductor) of glottis is posterior cricoarytenoid.
| 2 |
Lateral cricoarytenoid
|
Posterior cricoarytenoid
|
Transverse arytenoid
|
Inter arytenoids
|
Anatomy
| null |
4dcf2da2-c342-42bc-9dcb-8be033c3796d
|
single
|
True about hiatus hernia
|
HIATUS HERNIA is the most common type of a diaphragmatic hernia classified into type 1 -commonest, small, reducible and is the cephalad displacement of the gastro oesophagal junction into the mediastinum. type 2 -superior migration of fundus of the stomach alongside the GE junction type 3 -combination of both sliding hernia is most commonly associated with GORD. A rolling hernia (para-oesophageal )common in elderly.The usual clinical features include postprandial bloating, dysphagia and early satiety.This can lead to complications such as gangrene of stomach, perforations, volvulus ischaemic longitudinal gastric ulcer. treatment is always surgical. *excision of the sac and repair of the defect.mesh reinforcement to close the hiatus may be required.approaches can be abdominal, thoracic or laparoscopic. Ref: SRB&;s manual of surgery,5th ed, pg no 796
| 1 |
Surgery indicated in all symptomatic cases of paraesophageal
|
Para-esophageal type is more complicated
|
Para-esophageal type is common type
|
Common in infants
|
Surgery
|
G.I.T
|
89a682da-dc35-41c5-b103-167c24691d9a
|
multi
|
Which of the following staphylococcal protein is a superantigen-
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Exfoliative toxin Examples of superantigeno Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome toxino Staphylococcal enterotoxinso Staphylococcal exfoliative (erythrogenic) toxino Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome toxino Certain nonhuman retroviral proteinso Yersinia pseudotuberculosiso Mycoplasma arthritis,o Mouse mammary' tumor virus.
| 1 |
Exfoliative toxin
|
Cytolytic toxin
|
ProteinA
|
Leucocidin
|
Microbiology
|
Immunology
|
f47ad4d6-ee09-4ca7-96ca-60f3976962e3
|
single
|
Base substitution of GAC (Asp) to GAG (Glu) is an example ofa) Point mutationb) Silent mutationc) Non-sense mutationd) Conserved mutatione) Non-conserved mutation
|
It is a point mutation because only single nucleotide is changed (C by G).
It is a conserved mutation because altered AA has same properties as the original one (Both are acidic).
| 3 |
b
|
c
|
ad
|
ab
|
Biochemistry
| null |
1cdb7001-bfc1-4dfc-a322-8e07bd095075
|
single
|
In endodontic practice, periapical radiographs are very useful in assessing the
| null | 1 |
Length of the root canal
|
Presence of infection in the pulp
|
Vitality of the pulp
|
All of the above
|
Dental
| null |
11f12493-d945-4cf4-895a-2f03a5c83199
|
multi
|
Polycystic disease of the kidney may have cysts in all of the following organs except -
| null | 1 |
Lung
|
Liver
|
Pancreas
|
Spleen
|
Medicine
| null |
8fa2f17a-0e69-421f-b991-0e12699eb783
|
multi
|
Nerve supply of Glans penis is
|
Innervation of penis : nerves deriving from S2-S4. Sensory & sympathetic innervation: provided by the dorsal nerve of penis (terminal branch of pudendal nerve), which runs lateral to dorsal aery of penis. It Supplies both skin and glans. The sensory endings are more numerous on the glans). Ilioinguinal nerve branches supply skin at the root. Parasympathetic innervation: provided by cavernous nerves that innervate the helicine aeries in the corpora cavernosa (that is why erection is parasympathetically stimulated). Ref - medscape.com
| 4 |
Genital branch of genito-femoral nerve
|
Ilio-inguinal nerve
|
Ilio-hypogastric nerve
|
Pudendal nerve
|
Anatomy
|
Abdomen and pelvis
|
299a77da-7720-4505-b353-42de9d8a764d
|
single
|
All of the following structures forms the boundaries of the quadrangular space which is present under the deltoid muscle in the shoulder region, from the posterior side, EXCEPT:
|
Structures forming the boundaries of the quadrangular space from the posterior side are:Superiorly by teres minorInferiorly by teres majorLaterally by surgical neck of humerusMedially by long head of triceps brachiiContents of the quadrangular space are:Axillary nervePosterior circumflex humeral vesselsSagging pa of shoulder joint capsuleRef: Clinical Anatomy: (a Problem Solving Approach) By Kulkarni page 110.
| 4 |
Teres minor
|
Teres major
|
Surgical neck of humerus
|
Long head of biceps brachii
|
Anatomy
| null |
5403aa35-174c-4b6d-9f92-2f5e16382269
|
multi
|
platelet activating factor causes all except:
|
PAF is another phospholipid derived mediator having the following inflammatory effects: Platelet aggregation Vasoconstriction Bronchoconstriction At extremely low concentration, it may cause vasodilation and increased venular permeability Increases leukocyte adhesion to the endothelium (by enhancing integrin-mediated leukocyte binding), chemotaxis, degranulation, and the oxidative burst. Stimulates the synthesis of other mediators, paicularly eicosanoids, by leukocytes and other cells. ref robbins 9/e page 89
| 2 |
Vasoconstriction
|
Bronchodilation
|
Causes platelet aggregation
|
transmits signals between cells
|
Pathology
|
General pathology
|
cfd64677-a2b2-48b8-ba80-d66ed7ea4b88
|
multi
|
Abductors of larynx are:
| null | 1 |
Posterior cricoarytenoids
|
Transverse arytenoids
|
Cricothyroid
|
All of the above
|
Anatomy
| null |
c38b1a5b-81a4-45cb-b60f-0ddc908bbbdd
|
multi
|
Skin involvement in toxic epidermal necrolysis?
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., > 30% Erythema multiforme It is an acute , often self limited eruption characterized by a distinctive clinical eruption, the hallmark of which is target lesions (Iris lesions). EM can present with wide spectrum of severity which can be classified into 1. Erythema multiforme minor It is simply referred to as erythema multiforme (i.e. if not specified about other 2 types, erythema multiforme means EM minor). Localized eruption of skin with or without mucosal involvement. 2. Steven- Johnson syndrome (SJS) There are mucosal erosions with pruritic macules. In this epidermal detatchment is 10-30% of the body surface area. 3. Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) When skin detachment is more then 30% of BSA. It is also called Lyell's syndrome. Therefore TEN & SJS are considered as single syndrome i.e. SJS-TEN syndrome (Erythema multiforme major). If area involved is more than 30% it is TEN & if area involved is 10-30%, it is SJS.
| 4 |
< 10 %
|
l0 - 20%
|
20 - 30%
|
> 30%
|
Skin
| null |
e81ee298-4428-4272-88a2-df9dd8e1798d
|
single
|
Coronary vasodilatation is caused by
|
Refer kDT 7/e p536 It serves as a metabolic coupler between oxygen consumption andcoronary blood flow. ... Parasympathetic stimulation of the hea (i.e., vagal nerve activation) elicits modest coronary vasodilation(due to the direct effects of released acetylcholine on the coronaries). In some types of blood vessels, there is evidence that adenosine producesvasodilation through increases in cGMP, which leads to inhibition of calcium entry into the cells as well as opening of potassium channels. Incardiac tissue, adenosine binds to type 1 (A1) receptors, which are coupled to Gi-proteins.
| 1 |
Adenosine
|
Bradykinin
|
Histamines
|
Ergotamine
|
Pharmacology
|
Cardiovascular system
|
f9f165c6-efce-454d-b9d3-fed5d89640eb
|
single
|
Which of the laboratory test supports the diagnosis of preeclampsia
|
Pre - eclampsia Diagnostic criteria
B.P > 140 /90 mmHg after 20 weeks in previously normotensive women
Proteinuria > 300 mg / 24 hours or
Protein : Creatinine ratio > 0.3 or
Dipstick 1 + Persistent.
Platelets < 100,000 / μ L
Creatinine > 1.1 mg / dL
Serum transaminase levels twice normal.
| 1 |
Platelet count 103,000 / μ L.
|
Creatinine 1.14 mg / dL.
|
Alkaline phosphatase 138 IU / L.
|
Total protein of 258 mg in 24 hour urine.
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
454478ac-1663-4038-904d-fbbd897c3607
|
single
|
Craniospinal irradiation is employed in the treatment of:
|
Medulloblastoma
| 4 |
Oligodendroglioma
|
Pilocytic astrocytoma
|
Mixed oligoastrocytoma
|
Medulloblastoma
|
Radiology
| null |
1d02985f-8f24-4c3b-ae86-296606ee1f63
|
single
|
Madelung's deformity involves -
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Distal radiusMadelung's deformityo Madelung's deformity is a congenital disorder that affects growth of distal radius.o The primary defect is failure of normal growth of medial and palmar halves of the distal radial physis, leading to curvature in an medial (ulnar) and palmar direction,o The ulna is relatively long and becomes prominent dorsally.o The carpus (carpal bones) sinks, along with the medial (ulnar) half of the distal radial articular surface, into the gaps between the two forearm bones.
| 3 |
Humerus
|
Proximal ulna
|
Distal radius
|
Carpals
|
Orthopaedics
|
Skeletal Infections
|
ed83ddcf-cdec-4211-9ecc-fa6daff7f2a2
|
single
|
Oolani&;s test is used in
|
OOLANI&;STEST is used to test DDH in infants In this test the baby&;s thighs are held with the thumbs medially and the fingers resting on the greater trochanters; the hips are flexed to 90 degrees and gently abducted. In NORMAL baby, there is smooth abduction to almost 90 degrees. In CONGENITAL DISLOCATION the movement is usually impeded,but if pressue is applied to the greater trochantehere is a soft &;CLUNK&; as the dislocation reduces,and then the hip abducts fully(JERK OF ENTRY) If abduction stops halfway and there is no jerk of entry, there may be an irreducible dislocation. ref:APLEY&;S 9th edition page no.499
| 3 |
congenital dislocation of knee
|
Obstetric brachial plexus injury
|
Developmental dysplasia of hip
|
Tom Smith's ahritis
|
Orthopaedics
|
Pediatric orthopedics
|
0cf90f52-70a5-4ea9-9888-321afc9bff82
|
single
|
Ideal substance for measuring GFR should have all characteristics except
|
The Ideal substance to measure GFR is Inulin or following reasons ; It is non-toxic; It is freely filterable by the glomeruli; it is not bound to proteins It is neither secreted nor reabsorbed by the tubules; It is not synthesized, stored, or destroyed by the kidney . Thus, Filtered inulin = excreted inulin .Hence, it will give an exact estimate of the GFR. Endogenous creatinine clearance is used most commonly used to estimate the GFR.
| 1 |
Should be secreted in tubules
|
Should be non-toxic
|
Should not remain in the body
|
Should not be protein bound
|
Physiology
|
Excretory System (Kidney, Bladder) Acid-Base Balance
|
3afe2b18-fcdd-45f6-a8fd-b3c0dfd1fb02
|
multi
|
Oakley fulthrope procedure is
|
Antibody (antiserum) is incorporated in agar, poured into a tube and allowed to harden. A second layer of agar without antibody is placed above and allowed to solidify. Antigen solution is placed above the agar. The precipitin band appears in the plain agar column. Ref ananthnarayana and panikers microbiology textbook 8/e
| 2 |
Agglutination test
|
Precipitation test
|
Flocculation test
|
None of the above
|
Microbiology
|
general microbiology
|
0162ce88-9a94-42db-8938-08238b68b6a9
|
multi
|
A 75-year-old male presented with chief complaint of pain in the right shoulder. CXR is shown below. Which of the following could be the cause of pain in this patient?
|
CXR shows a mass in the right lung apex and there is associated destruction of the right 2nd and 3rd ribs posteriorly. A combination of an apical mass along with the destruction of the rib is characteristic of Pancoast tumor/ Superior Sulcus Tumor. MRI is a more sensitive investigation in identifying the extension of tumor into adjacent soft tissue and bone.
| 1 |
Pancoast tumor
|
Sarcoidosis
|
Subclan aery aneurysm
|
Mesothelioma
|
Radiology
|
Respiratory Radiology
|
e63d1654-b436-409b-97bb-ce86e94001e9
|
single
|
A 50-year-old woman undergoes neurosurgery for resection of a well-circumscribed intracranial neoplasm attached to the dura. The tumor compressed the underlying brain parenchyma without infiltration. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
|
The gross features of this dural-based tumor are consistent with meningioma, the most frequent benign intracranial neoplasm. It arises from meningothelial cells and histologically consists of whorls of elongated cells with scattered psammoma bodies. The benign behavior of this tumor is apparent from its "pushing" pattern of growth. The tumor tends to expand downward, compressing the brain, but without invading it. For this reason, this tumor can be easily removed at surgery. An aeriovenous malformation is a vascular aggregate of aeries, veins, and vessels with intermediate characteristics. These lesions are usually intracerebral and manifest with hemorrhage or seizures. Glioblastoma multiforme is the most frequent malignant intracerebral tumor. It arises from neoplastic transformation of astrocytes within the white matter. Grossly, it is characterized by a variegated appearance, with areas of solid tumor alternating with necrosis and hemorrhage. Medulloblastoma develops from the cerebellar vermis, usually in children. It is composed of small, primitive-appearing neoplastic cells.
| 4 |
Aeriovenous malformation
|
Glioblastoma multiforme
|
Medulloblastoma
|
Meningioma
|
Pathology
| null |
4576d171-ac5f-42c6-84ba-f3e86f79ce79
|
single
|
Nodular growth of alveolus is seen in
| null | 3 |
Paget's disease
|
Osteomas
|
Cementifying fibroma
|
All of the above
|
Pathology
| null |
3a350579-5527-497a-a945-3bbe92a0eb47
|
multi
|
Which is the commonest indication of classical cesarean section?
|
ANSWER: (C) Dense adhesion in lower uterine segmentREF: William's obs 22nd e p- 5987Classical caesarean section is not done these days f however its done in cases where the lower segment is not approachable. Uterine incision is made on upper segment above the reflection of uterovesical fold of peritoneum.Indications of classical caesarean sectionI Where lower segment approach is difficultDense adhesion due to previous operationsSeverely contracted pelvis ( osteomalcic or rachitic)Where lower segment approach is riskyBig fibroid in lower segmentCa cervixRepair is difficult and high vesico vaginal fistulaSevere degree of placenta previa with engorged vesselsPost mortem contemplating to have a live baby
| 3 |
Transverse lie
|
Cord prolapse
|
Dense adhesion in lower uterine segment
|
Placenta praevia
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
Caesarean Section
|
df743e95-6d5a-4074-bd20-3de5f7b3f2da
|
single
|
All of the followoing non-mycobacterial microorganisms display acid fastness, EXCEPT:
|
Microorganisms other than mycobacteria that display some acid fastness includes Nocardia, Rhodococcus, Legionella micdadei, Protozoa Isospora and Cryptosporidium. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 1340
| 2 |
Nocardia
|
Fusobacterium nucleatum
|
Rhodococcus
|
Isospora
|
Medicine
| null |
6f5ebded-1fcb-49d1-adae-f50b9276951e
|
multi
|
Surgery of choice for chronic acquired dacryocystitis
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Dacryocystorhinostomy Treatment of chronic dacryocystitis Congenital Adult (acquired) Massage over lacrimal sac with antibiotic eye drops Conservative :- Massage, antibiotic drops, probing, Syringing (irrigation) with normal saline & syringing antibiotic solution Dacryocystorhinostomy (DCR) :- Surgery of hoice Probing of nasolacrimal duct Dactyocystectomy (DCT) Intubation with silicone tube Conjunctivocystorhinostom Dacryocystorhinostomy (DCR)
| 1 |
Dacryocystorhinostomy
|
Dacryocystectomy
|
Conjunctivo-cystorhinostomy
|
None
|
Ophthalmology
| null |
507388f1-e7c4-4a65-ad2a-fdaa745c1236
|
multi
|
A mother presents to the neonatology OPD with her baby because of yellow extremities. On examination, there is petechial rash over the body, hepatosplenomagaly, microcephaly. What is the causative organism?
|
Features of congenital CMV infection are: petechial rash, jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, microcephaly, periventricular calcification, deafness, chorioretinitis,IUGR. congenital rubella syndrome: triad of cardiac defects, cataract and conductive hearing loss neonatal herpes presents as skin lesions with eye involvement, encephalitis, disseminated disease. fetal varicella syndrome: cicatrizing/ scarring skin lesions, chorioretenitis, hypoplastic limbs, LBW, CNS defects- due to cerebral atrophy. Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition
| 1 |
CMV
|
Rubella
|
HSV
|
Varicella
|
Microbiology
|
Virology
|
ba2e4638-bbf9-49ae-8b50-94754cee792e
|
single
|
Preformed enterotoxins are formed by ?
| null | 4 |
Clostridium tetani
|
E.coli
|
Shigella sonnei
|
Clostridium perfringens
|
Microbiology
| null |
b754c93f-eda8-477c-b582-1ac1d8db3ae6
|
single
|
Smokeless gun powder is composed of ?
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Nitrocellulose Smoke producing powder :- Black powder (black gun powder), Pyrodex. Smokeless powder :- Black powder plus nitrocellulose/nitrocellulose + nitroglycerine/nitroglycerine + nitrocellulose nitroguanidine. Semismokeless powder :- 80% black powder plus 20% smokeless powder.
| 3 |
KMnO4
|
HCN
|
Nitrocellulose
|
Sulphur
|
Forensic Medicine
| null |
fafbad81-7ace-48ca-8cd1-8f7c56ecd112
|
single
|
Soap bubble appearance on Xray is seen in which bone tumor ?
|
Ans. is 'A' i.e., Rheumatoid ahritis Repeat from previous sessions. See explanation-3 of session-3.
| 1 |
Osteogenic sarcoma
|
Giant cell tumor
|
Multiple myeloma
|
Chondroblastoma
|
Surgery
| null |
9c48faba-2728-434e-9a9d-2b2deca3ed57
|
single
|
Which of the following is the organism causing chronic burrowing ulcer?
|
Chronic Burrowing ulcer is also known as Meleney's ulcer. This type of ulcer is caused by a hemolytic microaerophilic Streptococci, and usually develops after surgery on the intestinal or genital tract. Ref: A Manual On Clinical Surgery, By, S.Das,Page, 52, 53; Oxford Textbook Of Surgery, 2000, 2nd Edition, Page 105; Textbook of Surgery By Gupta, 2nd edition page 66.
| 4 |
Peptostreptococcus
|
Streptococcus viridans
|
Streptococcus pyogenes
|
Microaerophilic streptococci
|
Surgery
| null |
8032284b-83c7-456d-afd8-063ac949ba68
|
single
|
Most common tumour in undescended testis is :
|
Approximately 95% of testicular tumors are derived from germ cells. Seminomas tend to remain localized in the testis for a longer period, are radiosensitive, and metastasize to lymph nodes, whereas nonseminomatous neoplasms metastasis sooner, are radioresistant, and tend to metastasize hematogenous routes. Risk factors for development of testicular neoplasms Cryptorchidism (i.e., undescended testicle). Syndromes with testicular dysgenesis (e.g., Klinefelter syndrome). Family history and history of a tumor in the contralateral testis. Ref : Wyatt C., Butterwoh IV J.F., Moos P.J., Mackey D.C., Brown T.G. (2008). Chapter 17. Pathology of the Male and Female Reproductive Tract and Breast. In C. Wyatt, J.F. Butterwoh IV, P.J. Moos, D.C. Mackey, T.G. Brown (Eds),Pathology: The Big Picture.
| 1 |
Seminoma
|
Teratoma
|
Both of the above
|
None of the above
|
Surgery
| null |
0fe8da2a-b479-4374-827c-f22506065666
|
multi
|
The following are DDT resistant except –
| null | 1 |
Phlebotomos
|
Culex fatigans
|
Anopheles stephenci
|
Musca domestica
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
cf7e3e58-15c3-4be0-92c3-49d9a86194ce
|
multi
|
Which of the following local anaesthetics belongs to the ester group ?
| null | 1 |
Procaine
|
Bupivacaine
|
Lignocaine
|
Mepivacaine
|
Pharmacology
| null |
d160454a-5e3d-4ac5-ac4d-94ad47598216
|
single
|
Which of the following disorder is an indication for the use of steroids in neonates?
|
Bronchopulmonary disorder is a chronic lung disorder which occur in children born prematurely with low bihweight and who recieved prolonged mechanical ventilation to treat respiratory distress syndrome. Treatment modalities includes use of surfactant, inhalational glucocoicoids with beta 2 agonists .
| 1 |
Brochopulmonary dysplasia
|
Pulmonary hypoplasia
|
Oesophagial atresia
|
None
|
Pediatrics
| null |
8a4d5f43-f89b-4dc9-979d-c4fc563e3e16
|
multi
|
Somatosensory area I largest representation is for
|
Coical areas for sensation from trunk and back are small, whereas large areas are concerned with impulses from hand and pas of mouth. And from the figure 11-4 it is evident that area for hand is more than face. Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 23rd edition; pg:175
| 1 |
Arm
|
Leg
|
Back
|
Head
|
Physiology
|
Nervous system
|
05e499dd-a3f0-44c4-96ec-36bcb3903871
|
single
|
In trichomonas - vaginalis:
|
(Greenish discharge) (125-Smaw's 13th) (107-S14th)* Trichomoniasis - 70% show typical discharge, which is profuse, thin creamy or slightly green in colour irriting and frothy discharge (almost self diagnostic)Multiple small punctate strawberry spots on the vaginal vault and portio-vaginalis of the cervix {strawberry vagina)* Candidiasis (Monilliasis) - Profuse curdly discharge and intensere pruritis.* Gardnerella - (Bacterial vaginosis) - white milky, nonviscous discharge adherent to the vaginal wall, fishy odour, when mixed with 10% KOH, Presence of clue cells.
| 1 |
Greenish discharge
|
White curdy discharge
|
Blood stained discharge
|
Milky discharge
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
Miscellaneous (Gynae)
|
aa3a44ca-cb09-4cff-9509-9489656b2710
|
single
|
Regarding sudeck's osteodystrophy all are true except
|
D i.e. Self limiting & good prognosis - International Association for the Study of Pain (IASP) has advocated the term complex regional pain syndrome type 1 (CRPS-1) for reflex sympathetic dystrophy and term complex regional pain syndrome type 2 (CRPS-2) to describe causalgia or similar signs and symptoms associated with a known peripheral nerve injury. - So the main difference between CRPS-1 (RSD, Sudceck's osteodystrophy) and CRPS-2 (Causalgia) is etiology. CRPS type 1 being associated with a soft tissue injury or immobilization while CRPS type II follows a peripheral nerve injury. - Presence of delayed onset, out of propoion, severe persistent, burning pain, decreased range of motion (stiffness), and shiny skin (trophic changes), erythematous & cyanotic discoloration 4 weeks to 2 months after sustaining soft tissue injury (ankle sprain) or bony injury (Colle's fracture) suggest a diagnosis of CRPS type 1 (i.e. reflex sympathetic dystrophy). Prolonged disuse results in muscle atrophy, joint stiffness or contracture, and osteopenia and leads to prolonged recovery (poor prognosis). Sympathetectomy (eg stellate ganglion block) may be used for treatment. It is a group of vague painful conditions observed as a sequelae of trauma. The trauma is some times relatively minor and signs and symptoms are out of propoion of the trauma. It is characterized by pain, hyperaesthesia, swelling, stiffness, discolouration, and trophic changes wihich are out of propoion to the inciting eventQ The most characteristic symptom is pain out of propoion to the inciting event in both severity and duration. It is often burning in characterQ. Hence the term 'Causalgia' which means burning pain. - Due to hypeaesthsia to light touch, patients often withdraw when one attempts to examine the affected extremity - Swelling is the most consistent physical findingQ. It often begins in area of injury and is soft initially, as the process continues, oedema gradually becomes firm and involve much broader area. - Stiffness and discolouration of skin (red, blue & /or pallor)Q are other classic signs. - Trophic skin changes i.e. skin is shiny, thin with loss of normal wrinkles and creasesQ are characteristically seen late. - The most common radiographic finding is localized osteopeniaQ d/t increased blood flow to the bone - Prognosis is directly related to the time to diagnosis and initiation of therapy. The goal is to break abnormal sympathetic reflex and to restore motion. - The abnormal sympathetic response is interrupted by the use of sympatholytic drugs eg. a - adrenergic blockers, local somatic nerve blocks, (Bier's block, axillary block), stellate ganglion blocks, or surgical sympathetectomyQ - Physical therapy is of crucial impoance. Active and passive range of motion should be performed to the level of discomfo but not pain - Recovery is prolonged & painful both for patient and surgeon. 3 years usually elapse before the bones are remineralized & it is rare that full range of movements returns. In absence of major nerve damage diagnosis is CRPS-1 If major nerve damage is present & pain is limited to a single peripheral nerve the diagnosis is CRPS 2. CRPS Type 1: Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy/ Sudeck's Osteoneuro Dystrophy - Pain after an (often minor) noxious event or immobilization (+-) - Continuing spontaneous pain or allodynia/hyperalgesia dispropoionate to the inciting event and not limited to a single peripheral nerve. - Edema, skin blood flow abnormality or abnormal pseudomotor activity at sometime in region of pain. - Excluded by conditions that otherwise account for the degree of pain and dysfunction. Autonomic Symptom Complex Sensory Hyperalgesia, Hyperaesthesia, Allodynia, Dysthesia Vasomotor Skin mottling, Cynosis, Erythema, Skin color asymmetry Sudomotor Edema, Hyperhidrosis, Sweating changes Trophic Changes of nail, hair & skin eg shiny, thin skin with loss of wrinkles Motor Muscle atrophy, stiffness or contracture of jointQ. X ray OsteopeniaQ Teche An erythematous line Cerebral sign develops, with in 10 to . 15 seconds & may persist for 10 to 15 minutes, by stroking the skin with blunt object.
| 4 |
Burning pain
|
Stiffness & swelling
|
Erythematous & cyanotic discolouration
|
Self limiting & good prognosis
|
Surgery
| null |
c9b0f706-4272-4fd3-9e93-014bd9fa1c6a
|
multi
|
Increased BMR is associated with -
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Increased glycolysis o Increased BMR is associated with hyper metabolic state which is characterized by :-Carbohydrate metabolismi) | Glycolysis| Gluconeogenesis| Glvcogenesis| GlyeogenolysisLipid metablism| Lipogenesis| Lipolysis| Cholesterol Synthesis| Triacylglycerol Synthesis| Lipoprotein degradation| KetogenesisProtein metablismIncreased protein degradationDecreased protein biosynthesis
| 3 |
Increased body fat store
|
Increased glvcognenesis
|
Increased glycolysis
|
Increased lipogenesis
|
Physiology
|
Endocrinology metabolism
|
5f9b1731-0ff2-4829-8422-02239380bbde
|
single
|
Histone acetylation causes
|
Histone acetylation and deacetylation are the processes by which the lysine residues within the N-terminal tail protruding from the histone core of the nucleosome are acetylated and deacetylated as pa of gene regulation. Histone acetylation and deacetylation are essential pas of gene regulation. These reactions are typically catalysed by enzymes with "histone acetyltransferase" (HAT) or "histone deacetylase" (HDAC) activity. Acetylation is the process where an acetyl functional group is transferred from one molecule (in this case, Acetyl-Coenzyme A) to another. Deacetylation is simply the reverse reaction where an acetyl group is removed from a molecule. Acetylated histones, octameric proteins that organize chromatin into nucleosomes and ultimately higher order structures, represent a type of epigenetic marker within chromatin. Acetylation removes the positive charge on the histones, thereby decreasing the interaction of the N termini of histones with the negatively charged phosphate groups of DNA. As a consequence, the condensed chromatin is transformed into a more relaxed structure that is associated with greater levels of gene transcription. This relaxation can be reversed by HDAC activity. Relaxed, transcriptionally active DNA is referred to as euchromatin. More condensed (tightly packed) DNA is referred to as heterochromatin. Condensation can be brought about by processes including deacetylation and methylation; the action of methylation is indirect and has no effect upon charge.
| 2 |
Increased Heterochromatin formation
|
Increase Euchromatin formation
|
Methylation of cystine
|
DNA replication
|
Biochemistry
|
Metabolism of nucleic acids
|
e119d536-dfe4-42de-bcc0-19dc904c2d06
|
single
|
A pregnant woman of >35 weeks gestation has SLE. All of the following drugs are used in treatment except:
|
Methotrexate is very effective in treating Systemic Lupus erythematosus(SLE) but during pregnancy, it can cross the placenta and cause the teratogenic effect to the fetus. The main teratogenic effect caused by Methotrexate is cleft palate, hydrocephalus, multiple defect, and fetal death. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY: SEVENTH EDITION -K.D TRIPATHI Page:862,89
| 1 |
Methotrexate
|
Sulfasalazine
|
Prednisolone
|
Chloroquine
|
Pharmacology
|
Immunomodulators
|
8eef54ce-533c-4949-b808-361194d39bda
|
multi
|
Boorheave syndrome involves perforation of esophagus after
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Vomiting [Ref: CSDT 13th/ep.444 & 11th/e p. 490; Schwartz 9th/ep.874 & 8th/e, p. 906; Bailey & Love 25th/e p.1014 & 24th/ep.996}* Boerhaave's syndrome is spontaneous perforation of the esophagus, occuring usually due tosevere barotrauma when a person vomits against a closed glottis. The pressure in the esophagus rapidly increases and the esophagus bursts at its weakest point, sending a stream of material into the mediastinum and often the pleural cavity as well.* Most common location of perforation is in the left posterolateral aspect 3-5 cm above the gastroesophageal junction. Second most common site of perforation is at the midthoracic esophagus on the right side.* Most cases follow a bout of heavy eating and drinking.* The principal early manifestation is pain felt in the chest and upper abdomen.
| 4 |
Burns
|
Acid ingestion
|
Stress
|
Vomiting
|
Surgery
|
Oesophagus
|
f7662a77-5cde-4d1a-b20a-7ab41ddbc252
|
single
|
Horner syndrome causes all, except:
|
Mydriasis
| 2 |
Enophthalmos
|
Mydriasis
|
Anhidrosis
|
Narrowed palpebral fissure
|
Ophthalmology
| null |
6c996da0-a628-4219-bcef-dc60fcd67e92
|
multi
|
β - blocker toxicity is treated by
|
Glucagon is used to treat Overdose of β - blockers
Fomepizole is used to Ethylene Glycol poisoning.
| 4 |
Atropine
|
Insulin
|
Fomepizole
|
Glucagon
|
Pharmacology
| null |
33680ea3-80aa-489b-8303-8c1f24847266
|
single
|
Investigation of choice for studying Renal Coical mass
|
C i.e. 99 - Tc - DMSA DTPA (Renogram) DMSA (Isotope Scanning) - DTPA is freely filtered at glomerulus with no - Tc.99 DMSA is used for renal morphological tubular reabsorption or excretion (i.e. GFR = (anatomic) imagine Excretory function) - This compound gets fixed in renal tubules & images - DTPA is useful for evaluating perfusion and may be obtained after 1-2 hours of injection. Lesions excretory function of each kidneyQ such as tumors & benign lesions as cysts show filling - Indications: defectQ 1. Measurement of relative renal - Used to assess coical function of KidneyQ and detect functionQ in each kidney. renal scarringQ. 2. Urinary tract obstructionQ 3. Diagnosis of Renovascular cause of hypeensionQ 4. Investigation of Renal transplantQ
| 3 |
99 Tc DTPA
|
53 Cr Study
|
99 Tc DMSA
|
99 Tc Pyrophosphate
|
Radiology
| null |
4254bc4f-f865-4cf4-ab70-9270f4c1cc58
|
single
|
Drugs commonly used in pre-anaesthetic medication are all except
|
Succinylcholine is a neuro muscular blocker used during induction of General anaesthesia. Drugs used in premedication include benzodiazepines like midazolam, diazepam; opioids like morphine, fentanyl; anticholinergics like atropine, scopolamine, glycopyrrolate.
| 4 |
Diazepam
|
Scopolamine
|
Morphine
|
Succinyl choline
|
Anaesthesia
|
Preoperative assessment and monitoring in anaesthesia
|
50480672-ddf7-4412-a22d-f5c2e40ba730
|
multi
|
All are the criteria for medical management of ectopic pregnancy except:
|
Ans. C. Pregnancy diameter <5cmCriteria are:a. Asymptomatic patient.b. Serum b-hCGlevel<2000IU/L.c. Pregnancy diameter <2cm.d. Unruptured tube.e. Non-active bleeding.f. No fetal cardiac activity on USG.g. <100ml blood in the pouch of Douglas.
| 3 |
Asymptomatic patient.
|
Serum r3-hCG level <2000 IU/L.
|
Pregnancy diameter <5 cm.
|
Unruptured tube.
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
Ecotopic Pregnancy
|
b4436360-48dd-4337-8e67-bc1dfe217b09
|
multi
|
Stain with parasite having Charcot-Layden crystals but no pus cells:
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., E. histolytica(Ref: Harrison, 19th/e, p. 1685; D.R. Arora, 2nd/e, p. 26, 27)* Fecal finding in amoebiasis are:I. Charcot-Leyden crystals.II. Positive test for heme.III. Paucity (lack) of neutrophils (pus cells).
| 3 |
Giardia
|
Taenia
|
E. histolytica
|
Trichomonas
|
Microbiology
|
Parasitology
|
7e7c24a7-d1f5-4176-98f9-4ad600b4b853
|
single
|
A 75-year-old man with a history of myocardial infarction 2 years ago, peripheral vascular disease with symptoms of claudication after walking half a block, hypeension, and diabetes presents with a large ventral hernia. He wishes to have the hernia repaired. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in his preoperative workup?
|
The patient should undergo persantine thallium stress testing followed by echocardiography to assess his need for coronary angiogram with possible need for angioplasty, stenting, or surgical revascularization prior to repair of his hernia. Although exercise stress testing is an appropriate method for evaluating a patient's cardiac function preoperatively, this patient's functional status is limited by his peripheral vascular disease and therefore a pharmacologic stress test would be the preferred method of cardiac evaluation. An ECG should be performed in this patient with a history of cardiovascular disease, hypeension, and diabetes, but a normal ECG would not preclude fuher workup. While myocardial infarction (MI) within 6 months of surgery is considered to increase a patient's risk for a cardiac complication after surgery using Goldman's criteria, a remote history of MI is not prohibitive for surgery in and of itself.
| 4 |
He should undergo an electrocardiogram (ECG).
|
He should undergo an exercise stress test.
|
He should undergo coronary aery bypass prior to operative repair of his ventral hernia
|
He should undergo a persantine thallium stress test and echocardiography.
|
Anaesthesia
|
Preoperative assessment and monitoring in anaesthesia
|
ae99c0de-0afd-424b-ab63-6996aaca70cc
|
multi
|
Hypokalemia is not present in :
| null | 4 |
Vomiting
|
Diarrhoea
|
Patient on diuretics
|
Chronic renal failure
|
Pathology
| null |
3d126d95-be95-4772-930c-b971bb9844eb
|
single
|
Which of the following drugs used to treat MDR TB can cause hypothyroidism:
|
Adverse effects of Ethionamide Gastro-intestinal: epigastric discomfo, anorexia, nausea, metallic taste, vomiting, excessive salivation, and sulfurous belching Psychiatric: hallucination and depression Hepatitis Hypothyroidism and goitre with prolonged administration Gynaecomastia, menstrual disturbances, impotence, acne, headache, and peripheral neuropathy Ref:
| 3 |
Kanamycin
|
Pyrazinamide
|
Ethionamide
|
None of the above
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
672f6da4-031c-4fd4-a3c8-82380b837cab
|
multi
|
Classic Galactosemia is due to deficiency of:
|
Galactose 1-Phosphatase Uridyltransferase (GALT) the rate-limiting enzyme of galactose metabolism is deficient in galactosemia. Galactose undergoes an exchange reaction with UDP-glucose to produce glucose 1-phosphate and UDP-galactose, using the rate-limiting enzyme galactose 1-phosphate uridyltransferase (GALT). Galactose metabolism: Galactose and its derivatives play a central role in the biosynthesis of complex carbohydrates, glycoproteins and glycolipids. In many organisms galactose also can serve as an impoant source of energy. No direct catabolic pathways exist for galactose metabolism. Galactose is therefore preferentially conveed into Glucose-1Phosphate, which may be shunted into glycolysis or into UDP galactose which can be used in synthetic pathways, including synthesis of lactose, glycoproteins, glycolipids, and glycosaminoglycans. Leloir pathway for Galactose metabolism: Galactose metabolism involves conversion of Galactose into Glucose-1-Phoshate, which may be shunted into Glycolysisor into UDP Galactose which can be used in synthetic pathways, including synthesis of Lactose, glycoproteins, glycolipids and glycosaminoglycans. This is carried out by the three principal enzymes in a mechanism known as Leloir pathways. Three major Enzymes of Galactose Metabolism and the metabolic consequence of result of their Deficiency: GALT: Galactose-1-Phosphate-Uridyl-Transferase (Classical Galactosemia; Most common: rate limiting Step) GALK: Galactokinase (Non classical Galactosemia; Less common) GALE: UDP-Galactose-4-Epimerase (Rare) These are diseases associated with deficiencies of each of these three enzymes the Leloir pathway Type 1 Type 2 Type 3 GALT GALK1 GALE Classic Galactosemia Galactokinase Deficient Galactosemia Galactose Epimerase Deficient Galactosemia Ref: Harper
| 4 |
Hexosaminidase
|
Glucocerebroside
|
Sphingomyelinase
|
Galactose-1-Phosphate-Uridyl-Transferase
|
Biochemistry
|
Metabolism of carbohydrate
|
063541e0-be6a-40c1-9ecc-c77edff6fa72
|
single
|
A female presents with placenta previa with active bleeding and blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg and pulse rate of 140 bpm. The choice of anaesthesia for emergency cesarean section in this female is?
|
Ans. (B) General anesthesia with intravenous ketamine(Ref: Williams Obstetrics 24th/e p518; Morgan 4th/197-199)The patient is presenting with shock, so spinal anesthesia cannot be used. Among the general anesthetics, ketamine is drug of choice for induction in patients with low blood pressure.
| 2 |
General anesthesia with intravenous propofol
|
General anesthesia with intravenous ketamine
|
Spinal anesthesia
|
Epidural anesthesia
|
Pharmacology
|
Anaesthesia
|
685c0e6e-7573-4d01-b851-209ace716bdb
|
single
|
Drug of choice in bacterial vaginosis is :
|
Metronidazole
| 1 |
Metronidazole
|
Doxycycline
|
Clindamycin
|
Ciprofloxacin
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
18c24529-5b3f-4fc1-b10f-817217a5c21f
|
single
|
Which of the following statements is wrong regarding hematoma
|
Ref. Sabiston Textbook of Surgery. Pg. 436
Hematoma
A hematoma is a localized collection of blood outside the blood vessels ,due to either disease or trauma including injury or surgery and may involve blood continuing to seep from broken capillaries .
A hematoma is initially liquid in form spread among the tissues including in sacs between tissues where it may coagulate and solidify before blood is reabsorbed in to blood vessels
Hematoma need not be operated
| 3 |
MRI needed to access haematoma
|
GCS assessment helps in prognosis
|
Haematoma must be operated
|
All of the above
|
Unknown
| null |
a1c634a7-2789-4634-b3f3-e006d7e3c649
|
multi
|
Lymphatic drainage of upper outer quadrant of breast ?
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Anterior axillary Most lymph, especially that from the superior lateral quadrant and center of breast, drains into the axillary lymph nodes, which, in turn, are drained by the subclan lymphatic trunk. Among the axillary nodes, the lymphatics end mostly in the anterior groups and paly the posterior and apical groups. Lymph from the anterior and posterior groups passes to the central and lateral groups, and through them to the apical (terminal) groups. Finally it reaches the supraclavicular nodes. The lymph vessels of the breast are arranged into two groups :? Superficial lymphatics : Drain skin of the breast. Deep lymphatics : Drain parenchyma of breast along with nipple and areola :? 75% is drained into axillary nodes (mostly into anterior axillary). 20% is drained into internal mammary lymph nodes. 5% is drained into posterior intercostal lymph nodes.
| 1 |
Anterior axillary
|
Posterior axillary
|
Paratracheal
|
None of the above
|
Anatomy
| null |
01c76c90-d1ae-401b-8c4d-05f1fbfcb318
|
multi
|
Opsonization takes place through-
|
1. All the three complement activation pathways(classical , alternate , lectin) lead to activation of C3, resulting in the production of C3b. Hence, C3b is considered as the central molecule in the activation of the complement cascade. 2. The C3b has two impoant functions to perform First, it combines with other components of the complement system to produce C5 convease, the enzyme that leads to the production of membrane attack complex(MAC) Second, it opsonizes bacteria due to the presence of receptors for C3b on the surface of the phagocytes. Biological Effects of Complement C5a: C5a is a chemotactic molecule specifically recognized by polymorphonuclear leukocytes or phagocytic cells. This substance causes leukocytes to migrate to a tissue in which an antigen-antibody reaction is taking place. At that site, a phagocytic cell recognizes opsonized paicles and ingests them.
| 2 |
C3a
|
C3b
|
C5a
|
C5b
|
Microbiology
|
Immunology Pa 2 ( Hybridoma Technology, Complement Pathways, Interferon, Structure and Functions of Immune Cells )
|
47b518a6-ae5a-41f5-844c-f8600566a119
|
single
|
What is your diagnosis:-
|
Following image shows a defect in the orbital floor and the 'tear drop' sign in the antrum characteristic of blow out fractures of orbit. WATER'S view on X-RAY is helpful in eliciting orbital blow out fracture
| 1 |
Orbital blow out fracture
|
Orbital roof fracture
|
Oculomotor nerve paralysis
|
Retrobulbar hemorrhage
|
Ophthalmology
|
NEET 2019
|
8f93655c-7854-4f09-8e6d-6a7c069934c7
|
single
|
All are true about fully frozen Ice pack except:-
|
Fully Frozen Ice Pack; Fill water up to horizontal mark with plain tap water. Smallest Component of cold chain. If there is any leakage such ice-packs should be discarded. 2 vaccines are kept in two holes inside the ice pack. Can maintain vaccine temeprature for 2-4 hours.
| 4 |
Smallest component of cold chain
|
Two vaccines are kept in two holes inside the ice pack
|
Fill water up to horizontal mark with plain tap water
|
Can store vaccines for 24hrs
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Cold Chain in India
|
5128c5e1-196b-437a-a49c-1e4d76550deb
|
multi
|
Most common presentation of nasopharyngeal carcinoma is?
|
Ans. is'a'i.e., Neck mass(Ref: Dhingra Sn/e p. 265)Neck mass is the most common presentation (60-90%) due to cervical lymphadenopathy.
| 1 |
Neck mass
|
Trotter's triad
|
Ophtalmoplegia
|
Glue ear
|
ENT
| null |
0ba63640-144c-4bf2-8b75-abf5d58e6260
|
single
|
Sixth cranial nerve lies at?
|
Sixth cranial nerve which supplies the lateral rectus muscle of the eyeball. one nerve fibre supplies approximately six muscles fibers. Abducent nucleus is situated in the upper pa of the floor of fouh ventricle in the lower pons, beneath the facial colliculus.ventromedially it is closely related to the medial longitudinal bundle. Ref;BDC volume 3;6th edition.
| 2 |
Midbrain
|
Pons
|
Medulla
|
Cerebellum
|
Anatomy
|
Head and neck
|
fae2e6b5-dc74-41c8-bfb1-bec207d42898
|
single
|
Treatment of Ca Cervix IIIB include -
|
Ans-D i.e., Intracavity brachytherapy followed by external beam radiotherapy Stage 1IA * Invasion limited to the measured stromal invasion with the maximum depth of 5mm and not wider than 7 mm IA1 * Invasion of stroma not greater than 3 mm in depth and no wider than 7mmIA2 * Measured invasion of stroma greater than 3mm but not greater than 5mm and not wider than 7 mm At this stage, the cancer is micro-invasiveMicroinvasive cervical cancer carries a minor risk of lymph node involvement and excellent prognosis following t/t.Therefore conservative t/t i.e., "conization" may also be considered many in these patients.Management of Stage IA1These are associated with the lowest risk of lymph node involvementThe risk increases only when there is lymphovascular space invasionThe t/t also varies according to the lymphovascular space invasion Lymphovascular space - Fertilities to be preserved invasion absent - Cervical Conization Do not wish to retain fertilities - Total infra fascial hysterectomy Lymphovascular - Modified radical hysterectomy and space invasion present pelvic lymphadenectomyManagement of State IA2These patients have 7% risk of lymph node metastasis and a greater than 4% risk of disease recurrence.Conservative management cannot be done for this degree of micro-invasion.These patients require "modified radical hysterectomy and pelvic lymphadenectomyIf fertility is to be preserved - Radical trachelectomy and lymphadenectomyPatients with micro-invasive cancers (Stages IA1and IA2) can also be treated with intracavitary brachytherapy aloneThis is usually done in older women who do not wish to preserve ovarian or sexual function stage IB* Clinical lesions confined to the cervix or preclinical lesions greater than IAIB,* Clinical lesions <=4 cm in sizeib2* Clinical lesions >=4 cm in sizeSTAGE II* Carcinoma extends beyond the cervix but has not extended to the pelvic wall, involves vagina, but not lower thirdHa* No obvious parametrial involvement but do extend vaginally at far as proximal thirdHb* Invades vagina to a similar extent as well as invade the parametriumManagement of stage IB to IIa TumoursBoth Radiotherapy and surgery are viable options in these patientsThe current practice is: IB1 ib2Radical hysterectomyManaged primarily with chemoradiation similar to advanced staged cancers* In general radical hysterectomy for stage IB through IIA tumors is usually selected for younger women with low BMI's who wish to preserve ovarian function and have concerns about sexual function following radiotherapy. STAGE IIICarcinoma has extended to the pelvic wall on pelvic examination there is no cancer-free space between the tumor and the pelvic wallTumor involves a lower third of the vaginaAll cases with hydronephrosis or nonfunctioning kidney should be includedIIIAIIIbInvolvement of lower third of vagina but no extension to the pelvic wallExtension to the pelvic wall, or hydronephrosis or nonfunctioning kidney due to the tumor.STAGE IV* Carcinoma has extended beyond the true pelvis or has clinically involved mucosa of bladder or rectumIVa* Spread of growth the adjacent organsIVB* Spread to distant organsManagement of stage IIB through IVa These are advanced stage cervical cancers, they extend past the confines of the cervix and often involve adjacent organs and retroperitoneal lymph nodesMost of the advanced stage tumors have a poor prognosis and their survival rate is less than 50%Two treatment modalities are available for these patientsRadiation therapyChemoradiation"Radiation therapy" was the cornerstone of advanced stage cervical cancer managementBut current evidence indicates that concurrent chemotherapy significantly improved overall and disease-free survival of women with advanced cervical cancerThus most patients with stage IIB through IVA cervical cancer are best treated with "chemoradiation" - Cisplatin containing regimens are associated with best survival rates since chemoradiation is not given in the option, radiotherapy is the answer.Management of stage IVBThey have poor prognosis and are treated with a goal of palliationThey are administeredPelvic radiation - To control vaginal bleeding and painSystemic chemotherapy - To palliate symptoms
| 4 |
Wertheims hysterectomy
|
Schauta ' s hysterectomy
|
Chemotherapy
|
Intracavity brachytherapy followed by external beam radiotherapy
|
Unknown
| null |
2de776e2-b80b-436f-8d38-1e94de429857
|
single
|
Which of the following inhalational anesthetic agent is contraindicated in liver disease?
|
Ans. b (Halothane). (Ref. Lee's synopsis of Anesthesia 12th ed. 163)Ether may cause a transient depression of liver function but does not cause significant damage.HALOTHANE# Dose: 0.5% (MAC 0.75%)# Actions: analgesic, anaesthetic# Advantages:- Potent and effective,- Allows for high FI02 delivery,- Bronchodilatation,- Low irritant,- Nice smell; can be used for induction# Disadvantages:- CVS depression,- Cerebral Vasodilatation- | ICP,- Respiratory depression, Airway irritation,- "halothane hepatitis",- Arrhythmias,- Myocardial depression,- Incidence of malignant hyperpyrexiaISOFLURANE# An isomer of enflurane.# It is a stable agent, so, no need of preservative.# It does not depress myocardium, so good for cardiac surgery.# Sensitizes heart to catecholamines, but not nephro/hepatotoxic.# Commonly used in neurosurgery.# Can cause coronary-steal syndrome.ENFLURANE# Nonirritating and noninflammable Liquid# Stimulates salivary and respiratory secretions slightly# Heart rate decreases little and reduction of cardiac output is less marked.# Does not sensitize the heart to adrenaline, arrhythmias are rare.# Bronchodilatation is similar to halothane.# It is a better skeletal muscle relaxant.# Contraindicated in epilepsy.METHOXYFLURANE# It has highest amount of fluoride content.# It can be converted into oxalate in the liver and can cause oxalate renal stone formation.# It is nephrotoxic and causes high out put renal failure.# Not used commonly.SEVOFLURANE# Induction and emergence from anaesthetic are fast and rapid changes in depth can be achieved.# Acceptability is good by pediatric patients.# Sevoflurane does not cause sympathetic stimulation and airway irritation even during rapid induction. Amount of fluoride liberated is safe for kidney and liver.# It is degraded by soda lime - not recommended for use in closed circuit.# Sevoflurane has rapid induction (1-2 min) and also emergence from anesthesia is more rapid than Isoflurane, and is comparable with than seen after continuous Propofol anesthesia. This makes it suitable for day -stay surgery.DESFLURANE# Anaesthetic for out patient surgery.# Induction and recovery are very fast.# Postanaesthetic cognitive and motor impairment is short-lived.# Desflurane is less potent than isoflurane; may induce coughing, breath holding and laryngospasm.# Desflurane can serve as a good alternative to isoflurane for routine surgery.
| 2 |
Methoxyflurane
|
Halothane
|
Ether
|
Isoflurane
|
Anaesthesia
|
General Anesthesia
|
ed341a70-2030-4fd9-8202-cf1783f2ffef
|
single
|
X - linked inheritance of alport's syndrome is due to mutation of _________
|
Mutation of COL4A5 gene ⇒ X - linked inheritence
Mutation of COL4A3 ,COL4A4 gene ⇒ Autosomal inheritence
| 1 |
COL4A5 gene
|
COL4B6 gene
|
COL3A5 gene
|
COL4A3 gene
|
Physiology
| null |
681c0cca-aa29-4b61-8012-ae40901ba66b
|
single
|
A chemical is tested for carcinogenicity by examining its mutagenic effects on bacterial cells in culture. Which of the following tests is used to make this determination?
|
The test described is the Ames test, which measures damage to DNA and correlates well with carcinogenicity in vitro. It is relatively inexpensive to perform, compared to other tests of carcinogenicity, and is frequently used as a screening test for potential carcinogens. The nitroblue tetrazolium test is used to examine the ability of neutrophils to undergo a respiratory burst, and is used in the diagnosis of hereditary immunodeficiencies. The Watson-Schwaz test detects porphobilinogen in urine, and is used in the diagnosis of porphyrias. The Widal test is used to diagnose typhoid fever. Ref: Lichtman M.A., Tefferi A. (2010). Chapter 91. Primary Myelofibrosis. In J.T. Prchal, K. Kaushansky, M.A. Lichtman, T.J. Kipps, U. Seligsohn (Eds), Williams Hematology, 8e.
| 1 |
Ames test
|
Nitroblue tetrazolium test
|
Watson-Schwaz test
|
Widal test
|
Medicine
| null |
fb4ca388-2f12-49e0-8ebc-071e1a420f5a
|
single
|
Treatment of choice for a patient with acquired vesicoureteric reflux with UTI?
|
Acquired renal scarring results from an episode or repeated episodes of acute pyelonephritis caused by infected urine in the presence of VUR. Infection activates a cascade of mediators, which leads to renal epithelial cells damage. Treatment with antibiotics during the first week after infection appears to limit inflammation, and consequently, scar formation. Only fine linear scars extending through the coex and small dimpling of the renal surface are evident if appropriate antibiotic therapy is instituted during the early inflammatory phase. Ref: Nguyen H.T., Tanagho E.A. (2009). Chapter 39. Reflux Nephropathy. In E.V. Lerma, J.S. Berns, A.R. Nissenson (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Nephrology & Hypeension.
| 1 |
Cotrimoxazole
|
Bilateral reimplantation of ureter
|
Injection of Collagen in the ureter
|
Endoscopic resection of ureter
|
Surgery
| null |
c4a6018e-a1ce-4ac7-9805-834983d40f15
|
single
|
Which structure is present in the anatomical snuff box?
|
Ans. B Radial arteryRef: BDC, 6th ed. vol. I pg. 122; Gray's 41st ed. pg. 790* The anatomical snuffbox is formed by the tendons of extensor polloicis longus and brevis, and abductor pollicis longus.* It has the radial artery running in the floor of the snuffbox, and the radial nerve passing to the dorsum of the hand.* Boundaries of snuff box:# Postero-medial border is the tendon of the extensor pollicis longus.# Antero-lateral border is a pair of parallel and intimate tendons of the extensor pollicis brevis and the abductor pollicis longus.# The proximal border is formed by the styloid process of the radius.# The distal border is formed by the approximate apex of the schematic snuffbox isosceles.
| 2 |
Ulnar artery
|
Radial artery
|
Median nerve
|
Radial nerve
|
Anatomy
|
Hand
|
c50a663a-53e8-41a5-99a6-04ab818d3ad0
|
single
|
All are true of pond's fracture, except: CMC (Vellore) 13
|
Ans. Depressed fracture of the skull
| 3 |
No brain damage
|
Seen in infants
|
Depressed fracture of the skull
|
Shearing of the dura is not seen
|
Forensic Medicine
| null |
ae3233a6-b891-437c-a23d-b867b16cc94d
|
multi
|
Triacylglycerol and Cholesteryl ester are
|
In general, lipids are insoluble in water since they contain a predominance of non polar (hydrocarbon) groups. However, fatty acids, phospholipids, sphingolipids, bile salts, and to a lesser extent, cholesterol contain polar groups. Therefore, a part of the molecule is hydrophobic, or water insoluble; and a part is hydrophilic, or water. Such molecules are described as amphipathic. Water interfaces with the polar group in the water phase and the non polar group in the oil phase. A bilayer of such amphipathic lipids is the basic.
| 3 |
Non polar lipids
|
Polar lipids
|
Amphipathic lipids
|
None of the above
|
Biochemistry
| null |
113cbc72-d9fa-4c8a-8789-07ab6519e5fc
|
multi
|
which level the somites initially form ?
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cervical levelThe first pair of somites develop a sho distance posterior to the cranial end of the notochord, and the rest of the somites from caudally."By the 20" day, the first pair of somites have formed in neck region." Textbook of embryologyParaxial mesoderm differentiates into somites. By the end of 20th day, the first pair of somites have formed in neck region. After this, about 3 pairs of somites are formed per day and by the end of 5" week about 42-44 somite pairs are formed (4-occipital, 8-cervical, 12-thoracic, 5-lumbar, 5-sacral and 8-10 cooccygeal). Somites are fuher differentiated into :-Dermatomyotome :- Give rise to skeletal muscles and dermis.Sclerotomes :- Give rise to veebral column.
| 2 |
Thoracic level
|
Cervical level
|
Lumbar level
|
Sacral level
|
Anatomy
| null |
e3c6ba67-0bb9-47bc-8dbe-0a3c5032b890
|
multi
|
All are common sites of primary for bone metastasis except-
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Brain o Metastatic bone disease is the commonest malignancy of bones and is much more common than primary bone tumors.o The commonest sites for bone metastases are vertebrae (most common), pelvis, the proximal half of the femur and the humerus.o Extremities distal to elbow and knee are least commonly involved sites.o Spread is usually via the blood stream; occasionally, visceral tumors spread directly into adjacent bones e.g., the pelvis and ribs.o Certain tumors are known to be common sources of bone metastasis.o The following primary tumors are the most common to metastasize in the bone; breast, prostate, lung, thyroid, kidney, and gastrointestinal tract.o The commonest source of metastatic bone disease is carcinoma of the breast.o In males most common source is prostate carcinoma.o Bladder and uterine carcinomas are less common sources.o In children, skeletal metastases originate from neuroblastoma, Ewing's sarcoma, and osteosarcoma.
| 3 |
Breast
|
Prostate
|
Brain
|
Kidney
|
Orthopaedics
|
Bone
|
d0282acd-973f-43db-afda-728d97c5caaa
|
multi
|
Mendelsons syndrome is:
|
Aspiration of gastric contents
| 1 |
Aspiration of gastric contents
|
Aspiration of nasal mucous
|
Hypersensitivity to inhalational anesthetics
|
Faulty intubation syndrome
|
Anaesthesia
| null |
678be4de-b094-419e-965a-79267dd551fa
|
single
|
Agoraphobia is commonly associated with:-
|
Agoraphobia: An irrational fear of open spaces or places where reaching a secure or safe base is difficult Commonest phobia encountered in clinical practice More common in women than men Panic disorder is commonly associated with agoraphobia Can cause significant dysfunctionality The individuals suffering from agoraphobia might become overly dependent on their phobic companion(s) - handful of people whom they trust.
| 3 |
Schizophrenia
|
Bipolar disorder
|
Panic disorder
|
OCD
|
Psychiatry
|
Neurotic, Stress Related and Somatoform Disorders
|
c9bd5a27-98ad-47e1-8ad2-a3fa927325ea
|
single
|
Earliest symptom showing improvement from classical triad of Wernicke's incephalopathv. to thiamine therapy ?
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Ophthalmoplegia Response to thiamine treatment in Wernicke's encephalopathy Ocular symptoms :- Earliest to respond, ophthalmoplegia (ocular palsies) improves within hours of thiamine administration. However, horizontal nystagmus may persist. Ataxia :- Ataxia responds more slowly than ocular palsies and half the patients recover incompletely with a residual ataxia. Encephalopathy :- Confusion and other CNS symptoms improve more slowly. As the symptoms of encephalopathy improve, Korsakoff's syndrome may become apparent in some patients
| 2 |
Ataxia
|
Ophthalmoplegia
|
Confusion
|
All are equally responsive
|
Psychiatry
| null |
2d2cc185-f35b-4636-a5e5-31ea856a63e5
|
multi
|
Chicken pox is infective
| null | 1 |
2 days before and 5 days after rash appearance
|
2 days before and 2 days after rash appearance
|
4 days before and 4 days after rash appearance
|
4 days before and 5 days after rash appearance
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
c6a056d3-05d8-403d-b1a6-6507c057756d
|
single
|
Sulphur of cysteine are not used/utilised in the body for the following process/product:
|
Ans. C. Introduction of sulphur in methionine.Methionine is an essential amino acid, so it cannot be synthesized from Cysteine.But Sulphur of cysteine is donated by sulphur of methionine.This is called transulfuration reaction.PLP is the coenzyme of transulfuration.The reaction is catalysed by Cystathionine beta Synthase and Cystathionase enzyme.
| 3 |
Help in the conversion of cyanide to thiocyanate
|
Thiosulphate formation
|
Introduction of sulphur in methionine
|
Disulphide bond formation between two adjacent peptide
|
Biochemistry
|
Proteins and Amino Acids
|
0ee9366e-3b4a-4b87-b1e9-b148d7f9d468
|
single
|
Not true about angioneurotic edema ?
|
Edema of angineurotic-edema is non-pitting.
C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency can cause hereditary angioneurotic edema.
Angioedema is a well known adverse effect of ACE inhibitors.
| 1 |
Pitting edema of face, lips and mucous membrane
|
C1 Esterase inhibitor deficiency can cause it
|
Extreme temperature exposure can provoke it
|
Known with ACE inhibitors
|
Dental
| null |
786a53cc-3c17-4fc9-9ab5-45d843a4debc
|
multi
|
Following are Granulomatous vasculitis except
|
.
| 4 |
Churg Straus disease
|
Takayasu's aeris
|
Wegener's granulomatosis
|
Buerger's disease
|
Surgery
|
All India exam
|
58de8fd8-b552-43df-977e-8cfc155e2023
|
multi
|
The most common site of metastasis in neuroblastoma?
|
Metastatic spread, which is more common in children older than 1 yr of age at diagnosis, occurs local invasion or distant hematogenous or lymphatic routes. The most common sites of metastasis are the regional or distant lymph nodes, long bones and skull, bone marrow, liver, and skin. Lung and brain metastases are rare, occurring in >3% of cases. Reference: Nelson; Neuroblastoma; Page no: 2461
| 3 |
Lung
|
Liver
|
Lymph nodes
|
Veebrae
|
Pediatrics
|
Childhood tumors
|
ecb16c97-08e3-404e-8590-e331367db1f7
|
single
|
Which of the about the composition of new ORS is wrong?
|
Total osmolarity is 245 mmol/litre. Reference:Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:224. <\p>
| 4 |
NaCl-2.6 grams\/litre
|
KCI - 1.5grams \/litre
|
Glucose - 13.5 grams\/litre
|
Total osmolarity - 300 mmol\/1
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Communicable diseases
|
e9756f7b-0bae-4823-9860-0c73c6670d08
|
single
|
Root value of femoral nerve?
|
Root value of Femoral nerve: Dorsal divisions of ventral primary rami of lumbar 2, 3, 4 segments of spinal cord.Ref: Chaurasia; Volume 2; 6th edition; Page no: 62
| 1 |
Dorsal divisions of ventral primary rami of lumbar 2, 3, 4
|
Ventral divisions of ventral primary rami of lumbar 2, 3, 4
|
Ventral divisions of dorsal primary rami of lumbar 2, 3, 4
|
Dorsal divisions of dorsal primary rami of lumbar 2, 3, 4
|
Anatomy
|
Lower limb
|
4f1fcd2d-bba0-49c0-83fb-82ecd5525673
|
single
|
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